Bible Query from
1 Corinthians

Q: In 1 Cor 1:1, what was the city of Corinth like?
A: In Paul's time it was a huge city, being the center of commerce of the entire eastern Mediterranean area between Sicily and Antioch. Corinth had a population of about 650,000 people, two-thirds of which were slaves. It had a wicked reputation; the Greeks had a slang term for going over to a completely immoral life; it was literally "to Corinthiasize". The church there tolerated some serious moral and doctrinal problems. If someone says we want to be just like the early Christians, the truth of the matter is that we do not want to be exactly like the Corinthians.
In 97/98 A.D. Clement of Rome wrote a letter to the Corinthian church, basically rebuking them for not doing some of the things Paul told them to do fifty years ago.
As a small detail, Haley's Alleged Discrepancies of the Bible p.310 mentions that Mr. Conybeare in Life and Epistles of St. Paul vol.2 p.27,31 (American edition) is one who mentioned the term "to Corinthiasize".
 

Q: Does 1 Cor 1:3 show that Jesus is God the Father as some Oneness Pentecostals say?
A: It is true that the Greek word here (kai) can mean either "and" or "even". Though verse 3 could go either way, 1 Corinthians 1:4 shows a distinction between God [the Father] and Jesus. See the discussion on Romans 1:7 and When Cultists Ask p.221 for more info.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 1:9, why did God not call everyone into fellowship with Jesus Christ?
A: God does offer salvation to all men (Titus 2:11), for all are commanded to obey it in 2 Thessalonians 1:8, 1 Peter 4:17, and Acts 2:38. We to hold out the word of life (Philippians 2:16) to all. However, God chose to make people with the free agency to reject God's purpose for themselves (Luke 7:30), and suffer consequences which are their own fault (Jeremiah 17:4).
 

Q: Does 1 Cor 1:10 show that obedient Christians are not to be divided by having independent thinking, as Jehovah's Witnesses teach?
A: No. Two examples of Paul tolerating independent thinking are Philippians 3:15 and Romans 14:1-10. Jehovah's Witnesses Answered Verse by Verse p.92-94 points out that JW's are commanded to "Avoid independent thinking ... questioning the counsel that is provided by God's visible organization," and to "Fight against independent thinking" (Watchtower magazine 1/15/1983 p.22,27.)
For Mormons, the Mormon prophet Ezra Taft Benson, when he was a Mormon apostle, said, "When the prophet speaks, the thinking is done."
But for Christians we are to question. Even when a Christian leader is wrong, we are to point this out, as Paul did in Galatians 2:11-21.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 1:10-13 and 1 Cor 3:3-7, since two genuine Christians each have a relationship with God, how come they can have division with each other?
A: Even genuine Christians, who have a relationship with God and the Holy Spirit dwelling inside of them, still sin and still have a sinful nature. For a candid example of this, read Acts 15:36-41.
However, even despite our shortcomings, God still uses Christians anyway.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 1:14-16 Paul did not remember for sure how many he baptized, so does this prove Paul's words here were not scripture?
A: No. Catholics sometimes points to this verse as refuting a Conservative Protestant view of the Bible, but this verse actually supports it.
A mechanical dictation theory of inspiration would say that the Bible is solely God's work, and there is no human component. So we can agree this verse explicitly refutes the mechanical dictation theory.
A Conservative view of the Bible is given in 2 Peter 1:21 (NKJV) "for prophecy never came by the will of man, but holy men of God spoke as they were moved by the Holy Spirit." So scripture is God's Word through the authors He chose. Scripture also has the human author's component as God oversaw what they wrote. So while Scripture is without error in the original manuscripts, you can still see Peter's style, Paul's style, Luke's style, etc.
An important point is that we should not say "I will take scripture the "..." way, because I am a "...". Rather, we should all seek to take scripture the way it represents itself as it should be taken. Here is what Peter wrote about Paul in 2 Peter 3:15b-16 (NKJV). "...as also our beloved brother Paul, according to the wisdom given to him, has written you. As also in his epistles, speaking in them of these things, in which some things hard to understand, which untaught and unstable people twist to their own destruction, as they do also the rest of the Scriptures."
See Romanism by Robert M. Zins p.39 for more info.
 

Q: Do 1 Cor 1:16 and Acts 16:15 support infant baptism by baptizing the household of Stephanas?
A: No. All of the household of Stephanas were converted in 1 Corinthians 16:15, and infants cannot be converted. A household does not always include infants. However, children as young as 6 can make a decision to come to Christ, and I have heard of one case where a four-year old knew what was going on, and was baptized as a believer. I heard this from the former four-year old, who is now an adult Vacation Bible School teacher.
Even though genuine Christians disagree on believer's baptism versus infant baptism, all should be able to agree that the "households" in 1 Corinthians 1:16 and Acts 16:15 do not prove or disprove that infant baptism was practiced. See also the discussion on Colossians 2:11-12.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 1:17, was Paul against water baptism?
A: No, Paul supported baptism, since he baptized the Crispus, Gaius, and the household of Stephanas. Paul meant that since some Corinthians were wrong in saying "they were of Paul", Paul was glad he was not the one who personally baptized very many of them. In the early church, Tertullian (198-220 A.D.) de Corona ch.3 p.94 explicitly mentions the water in water baptism. See When Critics Ask p.449 and Haley's Alleged Discrepancies of the Bible p.257 for more info.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 1:17, should we not practice water baptism, because it has passed away, as the error of ultra-dispensationalism teaches?
A: No. See the answer to the previous question. In addition, both 1) the concept of there being a different dispensation between Christ's resurrection in 33 A.D. and 52 A.D., and 2) the concept that baptism has passed away, was totally absent from all church writings until the middle fifteenth century at the earliest. Instead, Tertullian (198-220 A.D.) in de Corona ch.3 p.94 mentions baptism, explicitly by immersion in water.
Imagine for a moment finding a Christian who loved Jesus as Lord, but practiced all the Old Testament sacrifices and kept every Old Testament dietary law. If someone told you, that is no big deal. This is common, as he just did not get the word about the new dispensation yet. What would you say to that?
Now imagine us going to Heaven and an angel telling us, "you guys did not get the word about the new dispensation that started about 100 A.D. For almost 1,900 years, Christians thought they were living in a dispensation that actually was only 100 years long. This is no big deal, and it is common, as God forgot to reveal that to a single believer, in a way they could understand, for 1,900 years. What would you say to that?
See the next question for more on ultra-dispensationalism.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 1:17, what is "ultra-dispensationalism" and why is it wrong?
A: There is a sharp distinction in practice between ultra-dispensationalists vs. dispensationalists and other Christians: ultra-dispensationalists believe water baptism should not be practiced today, and in general they believe we live in a different dispensation than when the New Testament was written. Based on their pamphlet, "Should Water Baptism be Practiced Today?," here is (I hope) what they would view as a fair summary.
1. [Correctly] say the Greek word, baptisein, is a general word for cleansing
2. [Correctly] say that water baptism in the church cannot be proved based on the Old Testament or John the Baptist's work.
3. [Correctly] believe that the Gospel was preached to the Jews first, and the majority of them rejected it.
4. [Incorrectly] say that water baptism was only valid in Acts while Jesus was still being offered to Israel as their Messiah as in Acts33:19-21. (Also Acts 2:16-40, especially 22,36; Acts 3:12-36, especially 12,25,26, Acts 529-32, especially 31. Acts 2:37,38; Acts 3:19.
5. [Incorrectly] say that baptism should not be practiced today because:
5a. Washings (baptisein in Greek) were a part of the Mosaic Law. (As a side note, converts to Judaism were baptized, prior to Jesus.)
5b. Baptism was done before God's dealings with Israel changed.
5c. Baptism was [allegedly] done before God revealed the teaching about the church, around 52 A.D.. Paul said, "Christ sent men not to baptize, but to preach the gospel" (1 Cor 1:17).
5d. Today, "there is only one baptism" (Eph 4:5), and that is the baptism of the Holy Spirit.
There are three different ways to refute this, any one of which is sufficient in and of itself.
1. Observation of Scripture: All must agree that 1 Corinthians 1:13-16 was written at the same time as verse 17. These verses show that Corinthians were baptized just as surely as Christ died for them, and Paul preached the Gospel to them. Since Paul baptized Crispus and Gaius, either Paul was wrong to do so, or the "transition event" occurred between their baptism and Paul not baptizing any other Corinthians, which is implausible.
1 John 5:7, in the original Greek as well as modern translations, mention the testimony of the Spirit, the water, and the blood. If the "Spirit" is the Holy Spirit inside of believers, the blood, is Jesus' blood, then what else is the "water" except our water baptism?
1 Peter 3:21, written after 60 A.D., teaches about the baptismal water for "you".
In Ephesians 5:26, since Christ washed the Church with water, how does that differ from water baptism?
Equally important, the silence of Scripture is deafening about a new dispensation occurring right in the middle of the New Testament being written.
In summary, what Jesus commanded, Jesus' disciples and Paul did, with the water John mentioned, should be practiced today since God did not think it good to speak in His Word about any new dispensation that was a secret kept from Christianity until modern times.
2. Interpretation of Scripture: It is amazing how many Twentieth century disagreements over ancient Greek words fail to ask the very basic question, "how would Greek speakers, led by the Holy Spirit, universally understand their own language?" The early church did not interpret any verses in such as way that water baptism was not practiced. Justin Martyr (martyred 165 A.D.) in his First Apology has a whole chapter (61) on Christian baptism. He also discusses baptism in his dialog with Trypho the Jew.
The Didache (c.125 A.D.) ch.7 p.379 says, "baptize into the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit, in living water. But if thou have not living water, baptize into other water; and if thou canst not in cold, in warm. But if thou have not either, pour out water thrice upon the head into the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit."
Other early Christians who discussed the importance of water baptism are:
Letter of Ignatius to the Smyrnaeans ch.8 p.90 (-107/116 A.D.)
Epistle of Barnabas (100-150 A.D.)
2 Clement (c.150 A.D.) vol.7 ch.6 p.519
Shepherd of Hermas (c.160 A.D.) book 3 similtude 9 p.49 (Implied).
Irenaeus Against Heresies (182-188 A.D.) book 1 ch.21.1 p.345.
Clement of Alexandria (193-217/220 A.D.)
Tertullian (198-220 A.D.) has an entire work called On Baptism.
Hippolytus bishop of Portus (222-235/6 A.D.) Against the Heresy of One Noetus ch.14 p.228. See also Discourse on the Holy Theophany, ch.10 p.237
Origen (c.227-240 A.D.) Commentary on John book 1 ch.25 p.312. Also in many other places.
Novatian (250/4-256/7 A.D.) Treatise Concerning the Trinity ch.10 p.620
Anonymous Treatise on Re-Baptism (254-257 A.D.) ch.7 p.671. Also ch.5 p.669-670
Cyprian of Carthage (c.246-258 A.D.) taught that a person has to be baptized in the church; baptism by heretics is not considered "legitimate". Epistles of Cyprian Letter 70 p.377. Also
Letter 71 p.378
Firmilian (c.246-258 A.D.) in his letter to Cyprian Letter 74 p.390
Novatus of Thamaguda at the Seventh Council of Carthage (258 A.D.) p.566
Dionysius of Alexandria (246-265 A.D.) Letter 6.1 (to Sixtus, Bishop) p.102
Council of Elvira (306/307 A.D.) in the 21 undisputed canons refers to baptized men and women seven times in canons 1, 2, 4, 9, and 10.
Council of Ancyra (314 A.D.)
Council of Neocaesarea (c.315 A.D.)
Alexander of Alexandria (313-326 A.D.)
Archelaus (262-278 A.D.)
Clement of Alexandria (197-217/220 A.D.)
Melito of Sardis
Pamphilus (309 A.D.) An Exposition of the Chapters of the Acts of the Apostles O,X. vol.6 p.167
Passion of Perpetua and Felicitas (c.201/205 A.D.),
Victorinus of Petau (martyred 304 A.D.) Commentary on Revelation from the first chapter (16) p.346
Methodius (270-311/312 A.D.)
Lactantius (c.303-c.325 A.D.) The Divine Institutes book 4 ch.15 p.115
 
According to the Wycliffe Bible Dictionary p.441, the Jewish sect at Qumran also practiced baptism by immersion.
For a very detailed view of how a godly Greek-speaking Christian viewed 1 Corinthians 1:10-17, see John Chrysostom's 5 1/2 page homily II on 1 Corinthians.
In summary, it is not claimed that any of these post-Biblical Christian teachers were infallible. However, if the early church universally practiced water baptism, then, tongue-in-cheek, perhaps the ultra-dispensationalists need to postulate another dispensation where God brought water baptism back.
3. Application of Scripture: Since Jesus commanded us to make disciples, baptize them, teach them and a "third thing" in Matthew 28:19-20, and no verse explicitly says baptism passed away, consistency would mean the making of all disciples and teaching would pass away too.
The "third thing" mentioned in Matthew 28:20 is to obey everything Jesus commanded. Since Jesus commanded them to baptize, we should be very careful about setting aside a command of Jesus when no verse of Scripture says so. Finally, while one might try to argue that Matthew 28:19-20 did not apply to anyone except the eleven disciples, that is false because in Matthew 28:20 Jesus says that "Lo, I am with you always, even to the end of the age."
In summary, if your theology keeps you from obeying Christ, you should obey Christ and change your theology.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 1:20-21, what exactly is the "wisdom of this world" Paul warned about?
A: It can be thought of as any philosophy, psychology, or worldview that foolishly only takes into account this world, or sets itself up as a standard. Paul also talked of what is falsely called knowledge in 1 Timothy 6:20.
However, while Paul criticizes trusting in the wisdom of this world, Paul saw no problem agreeing with things that are true that Greek philosophers also said. As Clement of Alexandria put it in the Stromata (193-202 A.D.) book 1 chapter 14 in discussing Titus 1:12-13, "You see how even to the prophets of the Greeks he [Paul] attributes something of the truth, and is not ashamed, when discoursing for the edification of some and the shaming of others, to make use of Greek poems."
 

Q: In 1 Cor 1:20-21, given the side spectrum of the field of Christian counseling, how do you tell the difference between Christians using humanistic counseling, and what Christian counselors should be doing?
A: If the counselor is a Christian, or even that the counselor tries to also lead the person to Christ is not sufficient to show they are doing proper Christian counseling. Rather, according to a Robert McGee's book Search for Significance and a personal conversation with him on 6/13/2000, true Christian counseling is asking what God wants to accomplish in this situation and then being used to do that. God is the best counselor. McGee, the founder of the Rapha Christian Counseling Centers, says that a key factor is that if the person can begin to interact with the Living God, he has seen dramatic changes can occur in a very brief time. Along with counseling, his book also acknowledges that medical drugs have a role in treating medical conditions and chemical imbalances.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 1:27-28, why did God choose the foolish things of this world?
A: 1 Corinthians 1:29-31 answers this. No one will be able to boast before others that they became a Christian because they were smarter. No one will be able to boast before God that they understood because of their greater intelligence.
More intelligence does not give a person a greater opportunity of going to Heaven. In some cases, a person's intellectual pride can keep them from acknowledging that their wisdom is very small compared to God's. Christianity is fascinating in that it is simple enough for a child to understand all the important things, yet so deep, the most intelligent person cannot hope to know everything about an infinite God. Accepting Jesus involves committing everything you have, regardless of how wise you claim to be.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 2:3, does this show that Paul had epileptic fits, as Asimov's Guide to the Bible p.1047-1048 suggests?
A: No. Asimov bases this on the fact that Paul said he was "buffeted by Satan", and the experience on the road to Damascus might have been a fit. The fact that Paul admitted he was nervous in 1 Corinthians 2:3 does not mean he had epileptic fits. On the road to Damascus, the other people also saw the light and heard the sound, though they did not understand the voice. That does not mean they all had epileptic fits either.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 2:6, is the doctrine of God's Creation incompatible with the concept of rulers of this world as Rudolph Bultmann thought?
A: No. This is only incompatible with a simplistic view of God's Creation. God is completely sovereign over all, and God can do anything He wants. Nothing prevents God from choosing, for a time, to delegate a part of His sovereignty.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 2:8, how did all the rulers of this world not know Christ, since Jesus came before Herod and Pilate?
A: Even by Paul's time, a number of Roman rulers had heard of Christ and Christians. However, Paul's point is that none of them recognized Jesus for who He really was. See When Critics Ask p.449 and Haley's Alleged Discrepancies of the Bible p.358 for complementary answers.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 2:9-10, do believers know the future great things of heaven, or not?
A: We have been told of some of the great things of Heaven, but we have not been told everything, and we have not experienced them yet. As 1 Corinthians 13:12 says, "Now we see but a poor reflection; then we shall see face to face. Now I know in part; then I shall know fully, even as I am fully known."
 

Q: In 1 Cor 2:14, why does Paul say here that natural man cannot accept the things of the Spirit of God, when he says in Romans 1:19-20 that God made His truth evident within all people?
A: Romans 1:19-20 refers to general revelation, and 1 Corinthians 2:14 refers to knowledge or salvation.
General Revelation: Romans 1:19-20 refers to the truth of the existence of the Creator, his invisible attributes, eternal, power, and divine nature. This is not enough knowledge to be saved, but one might think it would be enough knowledge for everyone to seek to know this Creator. However, this is not the case. Romans 1:18 and 3:22 show that people suppress the truth by their wickedness, and Romans 3:9-20 goes into detail about how no one on their own seeks God. General revelation is a first step: a person must go beyond here to know God personally. However, a person is condemned if they reject the truth of general revelation that they have.
Romans 1:19-20 is a part of a larger argument Paul is making, that every single person is guilty of sin, and that we all need a savior, Jesus.
Knowledge of Salvation: 1 Corinthians 2:14 goes on from here and says natural man cannot accept the things of God; we need to have God's Spirit. 1 Corinthians 2:14 is part of a larger argument in 1 Corinthians 2 of the essential role of the spirit in our salvation and Christian growth.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 3:3, what is Paul's expectation here?
A: Paul is not merely commanding them not to have jealousy and quarreling among Christians. Rather, Paul had the expectation that they were mature Christians enough that there would be no quarreling and jealousy among them at all.
Jealousy is one root cause of quarreling, but they are still two distinct things. Jealousy is an unhappy feeling when you see someone else succeeding or doing well. Jealousy is related to the sin of covetousness, where you wish you had the success instead of them. Quarreling can ensure when you take steps to try to get the success for yourself instead of them.
An antidote to jealousy is realizing that we are all on the same team; as fellow brothers and sisters in Christ, we should be "cheerleaders for our family" encouraging them along. It is hard to be jealous of someone's success when you are praying for their success. An antidote to quarreling is realizing the relationship of love with that person is more important than small issues. Save your disagreements for only what is important, and give away on the small things.
But we cannot expect Christians to be perfect, either in early times or in ours. Paul and Barnabas had a sharp disagreement over taking Mark along on the missionary journey in Acts 15:37-39.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 3:11, is Jesus the foundation, or is the foundation the apostles and prophets in Eph 2:20?
A: While the Greek word for foundation, themelion, is the same in both verses, Ephesians 2:20 makes the two senses of the word "foundation" clear. The apostles and the prophets are the foundation stones (plural), which in turn rest upon the one foundation stone of Jesus.
Just as a pier-and-beam house rests upon the its entire foundation of piers and beams, but the house and the beams rest on the piers, the church rests upon the foundation of the apostles and prophets, which rest upon the foundation cornerstone of Jesus. See When Critics Ask p.450 and Haley's Alleged Discrepancies of the Bible p.129-130 for more info.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 3:12-15, will Christians be judged?
A: At the "Great White Throne Judgment": genuine Christians are not judged; they are declared righteous because they are covered with the blood of Christ. You can read about this in Revelation 20:11-15 and the parable of the Sheep and the Goats in Matthew 25:31-46.
Some Christians say these two verses refer to the same judgment and other Christians say separate judgments. Separate judgments would imply that believers are not present at the Great White Throne Judgment as in The Complete Book of Bible Answers p.276-277. R.C. Sproul in Now That's a Good Question p.501-502 says both believers and unbelievers will stand at the Last Judgment. Regardless, believers have nothing to fear from the Great White Throne Judgment.
In the subsequent "Bema-seat Judgment": Christians receive Heavenly rewards for works from the proper motivation. You can read about this in 1 Corinthians 3:11-15 and 2 Corinthians 4:10. Christians commonly call this the "bema-seat" judgment, because in Greek law, a "bema-seat" (or more properly bench) was what the judge sat on. See The Complete Book of Bible Answers p.272-276 for more info, and Now That's a Good Question p.287-288 for more on rewards in Heaven.
 

Q: Does 1 Cor 3:13-15 support the Catholic theory of purgatory?
A: No. It only appears to support it if somebody confuses
1) Testing works vs. painfully purging believers
2) The work vs. the believer passing through fire
A Catholic could (correctly) retort that this verse's mention of passing a believer's work through fire for testing does not rule out also a fiery ordeal for a believer for purging. However, since this is the only verse in the entire Bible Catholics use to support Purgatory (except for 2 Maccabees 12:46 in the Catholic Apocrypha), there is no other basis for this extra-Biblical invention.
In addition, 2 Peter 1:11 says we will receive a rich welcome into the everlasting Kingdom, not a "warm" welcome. Hebrews 10:2;16-19; 9:4 shows the Jesus is the one who purges us.
Perhaps if you believe in purgatory, this ad hominem argument to Catholics might be helpful to convince you of the other side.
1. Catholics have taught that a dead person's time spent in Purgatory can be lessened by a living person praying for them or making financial contributions to the church. Thus, There are ways to shorten a person's time to be purged by the fire of Purgatory.
2.
Catholics teach that those who wear a particular cloth, called a scapula, will be released from Purgatory within one week, because Mary visits purgatory once a week and takes out all who wore this. If all their sins were purged by fire, they would have no need of Mary's special help. Mary's special help has purgative power. Thus, The Purgatory fire is not necessary to purge all sins, if someone in Heaven has purgative power in place of the fire.
3.
Mary is not alone in purgative capability. Jesus "purged" all of us, according to 1 John 1:7,9; Hebrews 9:14,22; 10:2,16-19. Since Jesus has already promised this, all we have to do is to trust in His purging power. Thus, Relying on Mary and Purgatory Fire is unneeded, if Jesus has already promised to do it all.
See When Critics Ask p.450-451 and When Cultists Ask p.222-224 for more info.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 3:17, how are genuine Christians the Temple of God?
A: A superficial reading seems to say that a believer's body is a temple of God. While that is true, that is not what this verse is saying. All of the pronouns are you plural (ye or ya'll) and temple is singular. Thus, as the Believer's Bible Commentary p.1756 emphasizes, the real meaning of this verse is that all of us together are the one temple of God. See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.579-581 for more discussion.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 3:19, why did Paul quote as true scripture the words of Eliphaz in Job 5:3, since God said Eliphaz did not speak right of God in Job 42:7?
A: Job 42:7 does not say every word Eliphaz spoke was wrong. Specifically, Eliphaz spoke wrong where he assumed that God would not let trouble come on the undeserving. However, it would be universally understood that Eliphaz spoke correctly in saying God could catch the wise in their craftiness.
Whether that teaching was first given through Eliphaz, or whether Eliphaz learned that from a godly person who taught him is unknown, but that is irrelevant. The key points are
1. This is a truth about God.
2. This was written in the Old Testament Scripture that Jesus, the Jews, and the early church recognized.
3. Paul was simply saying this is a truth written in Scripture. Paul was right.
See Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.396-397 and When Critics Ask p.226,452 for more info.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 4:1, what is unusual about the Greek word for slave here?
There are four Greek words for servant:
doulos (1401) - a general word for slave or servant. It is the most common word used for servant.
diakonos (1249) - from which we get the word "deacon"
huperetes / (plural) hyperetas (5257) - derived from the word "to row" it literally means a galley slave. It can also mean a subordinate, minister, officer, or servant. A related word hypereteo, means to be a subordinate.
pais (3816) - a child who is a slave or servant.
Another word, oikonomous (3623) does not actually mean slave but steward.
In 1 Corinthians 4:1, Paul used huperetas for himself and other co-laborers.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 4:3, how did Paul not judge himself?
A: Paul did not judge himself compared to others, and Paul did not try to guess what kind of reward he would have in Heaven. Paul did examine his own life that he was not unintentionally or deliberately missing the mark in his pursuit to be Christ-like.
 

Q: 1 Cor 4:3, why did Paul not judge himself, since Paul said we are to examine ourselves in 2 Cor 13:5?
A: They are different Greek words. 1 Corinthians 4:3-4 used anakritho / anakrinun (judge), and 2 Corinthians 13:5 used the Greek word deirazete (Strong's 1921), which is better translated as examine.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 4:6 (KJV), what should it say?
A: The King James Version is mistaken in the added words it italicized here. It says, "learn in us not to think of men above that which is written" Note that the King James translators put the phrase "of men" in italics, to indicate that this was not in the Greek. But this is not the meaning.
"you may learn in us not to think beyond what is written" (NKJV)
"in us you might learn not to exceed what is written" (uNASB)
"you may learn from us the meaning of the saying, 'Do not go beyond what is written'" (NIV)
"not to go beyond what is written" (NET Bible)
"you might learn the lesson. 'Never go beyond what is written,'" (Williams)
"in us you may learn not to think above what has been written" (Green's Literal Translation)
Choices: Either Paul's meaning was not to think/go beyond what is written of/about men, or else not to think/go beyond what is written about things (men included) in God's word. So was the intended meaning the narrow sense (of men only) as the KJV, or the broad sense as other translations.
Of men: Perhaps the King James Version translators introduced "of men" because the context was speaking of Apollos, Paul, and other leaders. However, nothing that we know of was written about Apollos, Paul, or the others at this time. Even if the Jews had written something negative, warning people about Paul, Paul certainly would not recommend they accept any of this as authoritative.
Of things: These different sects had different teachings, especially the Judaizing group. Paul is primarily teaching not to teach things as God's Word that are not God's word. Paul is not introducing a new teaching here, but merely repeating something they have already read. Proverbs 30:6 says we should not add to God's words, and Deuteronomy 4:2 says they should not add anything to the word God commanded them.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 4:6; Prov 30:6, and Dt 4:2, what does it mean "not to go beyond what is written"?
A: This is a repeat of the answer on Proverbs 30:6.
It is not only foolish but sinfully dangerous to say "God said thus" when God did not say it. It is fine to speak your own opinion or interpretation, as long as it is understood not to be God's word. The Jews had a custom of standing when they read God's word, and sitting down when they expounded upon it. That way, people could see where God's word stopped and human interpretation began.
When people blatantly add to God's word, or subtly claim their human interpretation is God's truth, people can think God's Word failed if the human words are proved wrong. This does not merely mean "don't add falsehood to what God wrote", but simply "don't add anything to what God wrote". While Christians disagree on many theories (and that is OK), many un-Christlike divisions hinge on people saying something is God's word, when their logical deduction is not actually stated in Scripture. For example,
1. When should people be baptized?
2. Will Christ come before, during, or after the tribulation?
3. How is the bread and wine Christ's body and blood?
4. Exactly what degree of freedom do humans have?
5. Is God timeless, within time, or both?
Since some Christian believe each possible view, then some Christians must have correct views on these. However, if a Christian thinks the Bible states his or her view on this, then he or she is equating a human view with God's word. This is not good to do, even if the human view is actually correct.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 4:9, what is the significance of Paul talking about a procession here?
A: Processions were a rare but newsworthy part of ancient Roman life. When a Roman general won an important war, there would be a victory procession in his honor that he would lead at Rome. In the procession would be many of his prisoners, in chains. To put in nicely, Paul's experiences as an apostle equipped him to easily identify with prisoners like that. Paul was contrasting his experience with the complacency of the Corinthians.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 4:10, do Christians admit to believing Paul, a self-professed fool?
A: We do not believe in Paul, but we believe in Jesus, who knew what He was doing when He appointed Paul as His apostle. Paul did not just mean his wisdom was foolishness compared to God's wisdom, but he realized that everyone's wisdom was foolishness compared to God's wisdom. However, Paul also claimed his speech was God's wisdom, that was not of this world in 1 Corinthians 2:6-7.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 4:15, why should the Corinthians consider Paul their father, since Jesus said in Mt 23:9 to call no man your father?
A: They should not, and did not, call Paul father. Paul is merely giving an illustration of how he became as their father through introducing them to the Gospel. Similarly, Paul calls the Philippians a part of his crown in Philippians 4:1.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 5:1, why was Paul disfellowshipping the man but not the woman? Was this a double standard?
A: While scripture is silent on the woman, Paul might have said nothing about her because she never claimed to be a Christian.
The Bible Knowledge Commentary : New Testament p.514 has an interesting side note. A man having intimate relations with his mother or father's wife was not only against Old Testament Law (Leviticus 18:8 and Deuteronomy 22:22), it was also against Roman Law (Cicero Cluentes 6:15 and the Institutes of Gaius 1:63).
 

Q: In 1 Cor 5:5, what does "delivering someone to Satan for the destruction of the flesh" mean?
A: When either a Christian or non-Christian knows what is right and refuses to follow, this prayer is a "last result" that God would hand that person over to physical afflictions by Satan for the purpose of discipline.
One might note that despite Satan's open rebellion against God, God still chooses to use Satan as an instrument of His discipline and punishment. As one Christian put it, Satan is the unwilling servant of the most High God. See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.581-584 and 1001 Bible Questions Answered p.60-61 for more info.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 5:5 (NIV) does someone delivered to Satan no longer have a "sinful nature"?
A: No. The NIV usually translates the Greek word for flesh, sarx, as sinful nature, but the context here is the physical affliction, as The Bible Knowledge Commentary : New Testament p.514 says.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 5:9, is this evidence of a previous letter to the Corinthians?
A: Conservative Christian scholars have three views.
1. Lost Letter: This refers to an earlier letter that God did not see a need to preserve as Scripture. Everything that Paul ever wrote did not have to be Scripture. The Bible Knowledge Commentary : New Testament and The New Bible Dictionary p.255 advocate this view.
2. Preserved in 2 Corinthians: This refers to an earlier letter, which is preserved as a fragment in 2 Corinthians, which could be preserved within 2 Corinthians 1-9.
3. No Previous Letter was written. Paul used the aorist tense in Greek, which could refer to what Paul is currently writing. An example of Paul using the aorist in exactly this way is in 1 Corinthians 9:15. In recommendation of this view is the total silence in the early church of any previous letter.
For a discussion of all three views, see When Cultists Ask p.224-225 and When Critics Ask p.452-453.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 6:1-8, should Christians sue each other in law courts?
A: Christians can and should submit to binding arbitration by other Christians, but obedient Christians do not sue one another in secular courts of law. If one wonders how the other party could still be a genuine Christian and behave that way, that is no excuse to sue them. If the other party claims to be a Christian, but disagrees on secondary doctrines, such as the type of baptism, losing salvation, etc. that is no excuse to sue them either. However, if the other party claims to be Christian, but they will not affirm essentials such as the atoning work of Christ, the deity of Christ, the crucifixion, physical resurrection (a la 1 Corinthians 15), then they are not a genuine Christian and it is OK to sue them, though it is still better to settle out of court if possible.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 6:2-3, how will saints judge all things, since God is the judge?
A: God will judge all people. However, God will delegate some of his judgment of things and angels to Christians in Heaven. See When Critics Ask p.454 and Haley's Alleged Discrepancies of the Bible p.202-203 for more info.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 6:9-10, since these people are not going to Heaven, how can anyone go to Heaven?
A: First let's make the question harder, and then we will answer it. Paul never said this list was exhaustive; in other words, while these things can keep someone from going to heaven, one could obey all these things, but disobey other things, and still not go to heaven either.
The answer to this question lies in 1 Corinthians 6:11. It is a frank admission that some of them used to do these things prior to coming to Christ, but that Jesus washed, sanctified, and justified them. Jesus' work is to make the impossible possible, to take people who can never get to heaven on their own (which is everyone) and taking them to Heaven with Him. See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.584-587 and Haley's Alleged Discrepancies of the Bible p.217 for more info.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 6:9, was Paul's view of homosexuality only his opinion?
A: No. This was the apostle Paul's teaching, and Paul's words were authoritative from God, as 1 Corinthians 14:37 and Galatians 1:12 show. See When Critics Ask p.454-455 and When Cultists Ask p.225-226 for more info.
 

Q: Does 1 Cor 6:9 teach against all homosexuality or only "homosexual offenders"?
A: There is no uncertainty in either the definition or the Greek word he used. What some people question is the verse's scope.
Definition: For the Greeks, especially the Spartans, homosexuality was a common practice. Some even raised children for the sole purpose of turning out male and female prostitutes. The Greeks distinguished between the 1) men who practiced with boys, and 2) the boys who were used by the men. The Greek word, arsenokoitai, means the men.
Scope: Some claim that since Paul used this specific Greek word, he somehow nullified what Leviticus 18:22; 20:13, and Romans 1:26-27 said about homosexuality in general. However, the truth is that Paul is using a specific word to remind his readers of the condemnation of the whole practice.
In the early church, there was no hint that the prohibition did not apply to all homosexuality. See Clement of Alexandria The Instructor 3:12 and also the discussion on Romans 1:26-27 and Leviticus 18:22; 20:13. See Today's Handbook for Solving Bible Difficulties p.380-382 and When Critics Ask p.455-456 for more info.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 6:13, how can God raise our bodies, since He is going to destroy them?
A: Destroyed does not mean permanently unable to be resurrected. God will resurrect us and give us physical bodies, even for Christians who were killed and eaten by beasts. See When Cultists Ask p.226-227 and When Critics Ask p.456 for more info.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 6:14, should a Christian pastor perform a marriage ceremony between a Christian and a non-Christian?
A: The Christian being married is disobeying God's will, so a pastor should not. I suppose marrying two non-Christians is OK though.
R.C. Sproul says on marrying a Christian and a non-Christian, "As a general rule, I do not. I don't do it because I'm convinced that God does not allow me to do it." Read Now That's a Good Question p.376-377 for his thoughtful analysis of the reasons why.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 7:2, should everyone be married?
A: Marriage is the normal state for the human race in general. Nevertheless, Paul, when he was writing this verse, and others were not to be married, as 1 Corinthians 7:7-8,25-29 shows. For an extensive discussion, see Hard Sayings of the Bible p.587-589, and 1001 Bible Questions Answered p.249 for more info.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 7:3-5 (KJV), is it OK to "defraud one another" for a period of time?
A: This wording in the King James Version is unusual. The meaning in Greek is that a person should not withhold themselves from their spouse, except for prayer for a short time, and with mutual consent. This is regardless of whether the spouse is a believer or unbeliever. Thus, using sex or lack of it, as a reward (or punishment) is against the Bible.
 

Q: Does 1 Cor 7:10-16 contradict Mt 5:32 and 19:8-9 about divorce?
A: No. Matthew 5:32 and 19:8-9 discuss initiating divorce regardless of if they are a Christian or not. 1 Corinthians 7:10-16 says we can allow an unbelieving spouse to initiate divorce, if that is what they really want. See When Critics Ask p.456-457 for more info.
 

Q: Does 1 Cor 7:10-16 allow divorce for deserting a spouse?
A: Of course, divorce is a rather permanent separation, but the Greek words do not actually say divorce, but "separation" or "leave", so a desertion would be covered here, as well as divorce. However, a short-term or trial separation would not be a permanent leaving and is not included here. See Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.398-401 for more discussion of the broader issues.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 7:10-14 and 1 Cor 7:25-29, would it have been possible for Paul to write any personal opinions that were not Scripture? How would the early church, (and us) know not to accept them?
A: Sure. They had many conversations that are not recorded in Scripture. Also, Paul might have written a private letter to the Corinthians prior to 1 Corinthians, as 1 Corinthians 5:9 shows.
Tertullian writing 198-220 A.D. also mentions that Paul's teaching here was scripture, but he was differentiating between what was on His authority vs. repeating what Jesus said. On Exhortation to Chastity ch.3 p.52
 

Q: In 1 Cor 7:12-13, can Christians divorce their unbelieving spouses?
A: Christians should not initiate divorce, except for infidelity (Matthew 5:32), or in extreme cases of life or death of the spouse or children.
However, if an unbelieving spouse initiates a divorce, the Christians can let them leave, as 1 Corinthians 7:15 says "God has called us to peace" in this situation. Many see abandonment as equivalent to initiating divorce. 1001 Bible Questions Answered p.247 also explains 1 Corinthians 7:14,15,39.
 

Q: Are 1 Cor 7:12-16 and 1 Cor 7:25-29 scripture, or just Paul's opinion?
A: Some try to say it is just Paul's personal opinion, and conservative Christians say it is still authoritative teaching. All should be able to agree on three things:
1. There is no teaching in the surrounding verses of 1 Corinthians 7:8-13 and 7:17 that we cannot glean from elsewhere in the Bible.
2. 1 Corinthians 7:14-16 is a new teaching found no where else in the New Testament, and 1 Corinthians 7:12-13 is a prelude to this.
3. Paul is saying the Lord did not directly say this.
4. Paul said what he wrote was the words of God in 1 Corinthians 2:13; 14:37. Peter said Paul's words were scripture in 2 Peter 3:15-16.
5. Paul never said this did not have the apostolic authority of his other teaching.
See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.589-591, Bible Difficulties and Seeming Contradictions p.242-244, When Critics Ask p.457-458, and Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.397-398 for more info.
 

Q: Does 1 Cor 7:14 prove, or at least support, infant baptism?
A: No. If the "children being holy" supported them being baptized, then the spouse being sanctified would support baptism of unbelieving spouses, too.
This verse means that God will still bless the children of believers, even when one spouse is not a believer. If a child with one Christian parent was not baptized as an infant, because of the desire of the non-Christian parent, this verse would still be true and apply to that child.
In Sweden, which is an officially Lutheran nation, they do not have public infant baptism ceremonies. They view infant baptism as important enough, that every baby is baptized before the baby ever leaves the hospital. This entirely misses the point of a person choosing to be baptized.
See also the discussion on Colossians 2:11-12 and 1 Corinthians 1:16 for more info.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 7:14, since the children for a believing parent are sanctified, are the children still sinful?
A: Yes because sanctified does not mean sinless. All, except for Adam, Eve, and Jesus, were born with a sinful nature. 1 Corinthians 7:14 simply says that the children of a believer are especially watched over by God. See Bible Difficulties and Seeming Contradictions p.244-255 for a complementary answer.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 7:18-19, since circumcision is nothing, and Gal 5:2-3 says we should not get circumcised, why did Paul circumcise Timothy in Acts 16:3?
A: Paul circumcised Timothy because the Jews in that area knew that Timothy's father was a Greek. See the discussion on Acts 16:3 for more info.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 7:21-23, is Paul contradicting what he said in Eph 6:5-8 on slavery?
A: No. Here is a condensation of Paul's teaching.
a) Avoid becoming a slave.
b) If you are a slave and can gain (purchase) your freedom, do so.
c) Until then learn to be content in your present situation.
Given that it was hard for a poor freeman to make an honest living in large cities, and that two-thirds of the Corinthians were slaves, 1 Corinthians 7:21-23 is wise and pragmatic. See also the discussion on Titus 2:9, Philemon 10-15, and Hard Sayings of the Bible p.591-593 and p.642-644 for more info.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 7:29, should Christians have avoided marriage 2,000 years ago, because the time is short?
A: In hindsight, the advice given was wise, since intense persecution started within ten years. Paul did not give us all the details of why the time was short, simply mentioning the present distress and great changes in 1 Corinthians 7:26,31.
Like an earthly parent, sometimes God says things to us without giving us all the reasons or background. If we are wise, we will obey God regardless.
See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.593-595 and Bible Difficulties and Seeming Contradictions p.204 for more info. Tertullian, writing 198-220 A.D. in de Corona ch.13 p.101 mentions that "you have the apostle [Paul] enjoining people to marry in the Lord."
 

Q: In 1 Cor 7:29-31, did "the world in its present form is passing away" refer to persecution at that time or Christ's return?
A: Before answering the question, let's make a few observations about what the passage is saying. Paul is giving both advice and commands, and says He is doing so because of a prediction and an observation. He is advising (not commanding) people not to marry. He is telling believers not to weep, rejoice, or worry about your possessions (i.e. to stoically accept what is about to happen). He gives two reasons (7:28b) a prediction of a short time and it would be trouble in the flesh, and the observation: (7:31b) "for the form of this world is [currently] passing away (NKJV). As to the world in its present form (schema in Greek) passing away, the Believer's Bible Commentary p.1776 says the last phrase was actually borrowed from Greek theatre meaning the changing of a scene.
As for the answer, Christian scholars disagree, because it fits both.
(probable answer) Persecution: Apart from local intense persecutions, there was intense general persecution within ten years of Paul writing this. Thus there would be very hard times for Christians, and it would be harder for those married. Don't be caught up in weeping, because there will be a lot of persecution. Don't be caught up in rejoicing, or cherishing your possessions, because things will be very transitory. Paul said nothing here about when the world in its present form will have completed passed away. Rather, Paul said that the world in its present form is in the process of passing away. Christianity did not become the official religion of the Roman Empire until 325 A.D., but the process was hard and painful for Christ's followers. The New International Bible Commentary p.1363 and The Expositor's Bible Commentary vol.10 p.235 hold the view that Paul is talking of persecution during his time.
(unlikely) The Lord's Return: This view says that Paul has his eye on Christ's return. Again, Paul made no prediction when the world in its present form will have passed away, only that it is now in the process of passing away. In other words, Paul is not saying when the alarm clock will ring, but rather that it is ticking forward. Since the clock is ticking though, Paul advices them to devote themselves wholeheartedly to the Lord and His work, and do not get entangled in worldly things, whether the cause sadness, happiness, or gain possessions. He advises against marriage so that people can devote more to the Lord's work, because we never know when Christ will return. The Bible Knowledge Commentary : New Testament p.519 and the Believer's Bible Commentary p.1776 espouse the view that this is the Lord's return. The NIV Study Bible p.1743 says that some think this view; but it does not endorse it.
It is most likely not the first view because this advice Paul gives in this verse, including being as those who do not weep or rejoice, would be both for that time and other times of persecution. The second view would make Paul's advice for that time and all times forward until Christ returns.
 

Q: What does 1 Cor 7:30-31 mean?
A: These verses are very good advice both for Paul's time and every time Christians are about to undergo severe persecution. Even when Christians are not being persecuted, it is wise to only "hold on loosely" to all earthly things, be they the joy of marriage or other happiness, possessions, or even mourning. You never know when they can be taken away, or how much time you have. You do know that in the short time we are here, God wants us to shine for Him and do His will.
We cannot live like the young boy Calvin said in the "Calvin and Hobbes" cartoon, "God put me here on earth to accomplish certain things, and at the rate things are going, I'll live forever!"
 

Q: In 1 Cor 7:31, how was the "world in its present form passing away"?
A: The coming of Jesus and the spread of Christianity was the most significant historical event of this time. However, prior to the Roman Emperor Constantine legalizing Christianity in 324 A.D., Christians were going to have the great distress of ten persecutions.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 8:4, since idols are nothing, why is idolatry so strongly condemned in 1 Cor 10:20, Ex 20:4, Lev 19:4, 26:1,30?
A: An analogy is helpful here. An imaginary parachute is nothing, but relying on a non-existing parachute is doing something deadly. Similarly, an idol is nothing, but putting your trust in an idol is something deadly. God emphasizes in many passages, that you cannot put your trust in both Him and an idol. See When Cultists Ask p.227 and When Critics Ask p.458 for more info.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 8:4,7-13, is it OK to eat meat offered to idols, or should we abstain as Acts 15:28-29 says?
A: Romans 14 shows that it could wrong or OK depending on the circumstances.
a) It is wrong to be at a feast celebrating the idol. It is wrong to eat meat from there if you view it as somehow worshipping the idol. Romans 14:23 says that whatever is not of faith is sin.
b) It is OK to eat the meat (with one exception) if you realize that all food came from God, not the idols, and that you are not worshipping any idols.
b2) An exception is if a weaker Christian or a non-Christian would view your eating as compromising your faith. We must not cause others to stumble in Romans 14:10,13, and we should avoid giving the appearance of evil in 1 Thessalonians 5:22 and 2 Corinthians 8:22.
 

Q: Do 1 Cor 8:5 and John 10:35 teach many gods?
A: No. 1 Corinthians 8:5 refers to all the idols that non-Christians believed in. There are many gods, but there is only One rightfully called God. We should worship the "only wise God" 1 Timothy 1:17 KJV). See also the discussion on John 10:35. Tertullian (198-220 A.D.) in Against Hermogenes chapter 4 Ante-Nicene Fathers volume 3 p.479 was one of the first to discuss 1 Corinthians 8:5. He said the many gods are gods in name only, while there is only one true God. Origen (225-253/254 A.D.) also answered this objection in Origen Against Celsus book 8 ch.4 p.641.
Would you eat in an idol's temple, contrary to verse 10 of the same chapter? There are indeed many idol gods, but would you teach that these gods are real, contrary to verse 4? If not, then you cannot use verse 5 to talk about multiple real gods. Verse 6 says that we are different, in that we only believe in one God.
As a side note, the first person to address this question and give essentially the same answer was Irenaeus bishop of Lyons in Irenaeus Against Heresies book 3 ch.6.5 p.420.
A Mormon once told my Christian roommate, Greg, that there were many gods, but there was only one god of this world, and he worshipped the god of this world. However, the god of this world is Satan according to 2 Corinthians 4:4 and 1 John 5:19. Irenaeus (lived 120-202 A.D., wrote 182-188 A.D.) in Fragment 46 p.575 also says the god of this world is Satan.
See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.595-597, The Complete Book of Bible Answers p.81-82, When Cultists Ask p.227-228, 1001 Bible Questions Answered p.23, and Mormons Answered Verse by Verse p.83-84 for more info.
 

Q: Does 1 Cor 8:6 teach Jesus is not Almighty God, as Jehovah's Witnesses claim?
A: No. In this verse, the word "God" refers to God the Father, but JW's would have to ignore all the other verses that says that Jesus is God, such as John 20:28-29 and John 8:58. They would have to deny that there are at least two senses of the word God, contradicting Hebrews 1:8 and Hebrews 1:9. They would have to refuse to honor the Son as they honor the Father, contradicting John 5:23 says.
Jehovah's Witnesses try to make a distinction between "Almighty God" (the Father) and "Mighty God", whom they say is the son. While within the Trinity there is a distinction between the three, since God is Almighty, there are either separate gods, as JW's are implying, or there is only One God, and God is Almighty. See When Cultists Ask p.228 for more info.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 8:11, how can our actions regarding idol meat "destroy" our Christian brother, since John 10:28 says they will never perish?
A: While the Greek words are the same (with simply a different ending) apoleitai/apoluntai the meaning is different. Genuine Christians disagree on whether believers can lose their salvation. Regardless of that, believers unfortunately can lose their testimony and their clear conscience by eating food when they believe it is wrong to do so.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 9:1-2, was Paul an apostle to just the Corinthians, or for everyone?
A: Paul himself said he was an apostle not just to the Corinthians, but to all in 1 Timothy 1:1; 2:7; Romans 1:1; Galatians 1:1, Ephesians 1:1; Colossians 1:1; 1 Timothy 1:1; 2 Timothy 1:1; and Titus 1:1.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 9:5 and Mt 12:46-47, did Jesus have brothers?
A: Yes, Jesus had half-brothers.
Most non-Catholics generally take the plain meaning of these verses, that Jesus did have brothers. Early Christians took this the same way. Jesus' brothers were James (the author of James), Joseph, Simon, and Judas [Jude] (the author of Jude), according to Matthew 13:55-56.
Most Catholics take "brothers" to mean cousins, since the Catholic Church teaches Mary was forever a virgin.
However, the Greek word for cousin, suggenes, which was used in Luke 1:36 and 1:58, was available for Paul and Matthew to use, and they did not. Since some Catholics like to remind people of the importance of Christian tradition, Hippolytus (225-235/6 A.D.) in The Refutation of All Heresies chapter 2 mentions James as the brother of our Lord.
Other verses mentioning Jesus' brothers are Matthew 13:55; Mark 3:31-32, Luke 8:19-20, and John 2:12; 7:3,5,10. See 1001 Bible Questions Answered p.31 for more info.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 9:5, did Peter (Cephas) have a wife?
A: Besides 1 Corinthians 9:5 saying so, in Matthew 8:14 and Luke 4:38-39, Jesus healed Peter's mother-in-law of fever. Clement of Alexandria (Stromata 193-202 A.D.) and Eusebius' Ecclesiastical History (3:30) also teach that Peter was married and had children.
According to Eusebius' Ecclesiastical History 3:30, "They say, accordingly, that when the blessed Peter saw his own wife led out to die, he rejoiced because of her summons and her return home, and called to her very encouragingly and comfortingly, addressing her by name, and saying, 'Oh thou, remember the Lord.' Such was the marriage of the blessed, and their perfect disposition toward those dearest to them" (Stromata book 7 ch.2)
Jesus healed Peter's mother-in-law early in his ministry (Matthew 8:14-17; Mark 1:29-34; Luke 4:38-39). Thus Peter likely was married prior to meeting Jesus.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 9:12, how can the Gospel of Christ be hindered?
A: "Gospel" is simply the "good news" about Jesus Christ. The communication and the delivery of the Gospel can be hindered by unbelievers. It can also be restricted by believers who, out of fear of persecution or other reasons, do not wish to preach all of it.
One can communicate the Gospel with four simple points.
1. Understand some of who God is, that there is only One Triune God, and we are not to worship any other so-called gods.
2. Realize who we are, that we are born with a sin nature, and need cleansing and forgiveness of our sins. We cannot get to Heaven on our own merits.
3. See that Jesus Christ, through His death on the cross and resurrection from the dead, provided the one and only way for anyone to go to Heaven.
4. Realize that we need to call upon God, trust in the Lord, and see that Jesus' blood paid the price for our sins.
After we are born again as children of God, we know that the Holy Spirit dwells inside us, working in us to live pleasing to God. While we will still sin, God is sanctifying us, to make us more Christlike. We to live obediently to God's commands, be baptized by water, and live a life loving God foremost and loving others.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 9:14, should everyone who preaches the Gospel make their living off the Gospel?
A: As 1 Corinthians 1:15 shows, this is a privilege, not a command. If is perfectly fine for a godly Christian to make his or her living off of the Gospel, but they do not have to do so.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 9:16-17, why did Paul have to preach the Gospel, either voluntarily or involuntarily?
A: You can serve God as much or as little as you want. Paul was called to preach the Gospel. He eagerly and voluntarily wanted to preach it. However, he was pointing out that even if he had not desired to preach it, he would still feel compelled to do so because of the trust God had committed to Paul. 1001 Bible Questions Answered p.125-126 points out that like Paul, all genuine Christians have a solemn obligation to preach the gospel, and will have to stand before God and give an account before God of what was entrusted to us. Our eternal rewards in Heaven are based on what we do or do not do.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 9:18 (KJV), if Paul is not "abusing his power" in taking money for preaching, do paid ministers abuse their power?
A: No, "abusing his power" is an old-fashioned King James Version expression is better translated "using his right", mentioned in 1 Corinthians 9:14, of earning his living from preaching the Gospel.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 9:20-23, how is Paul all things to all men?
A: Paul did not compromise his preaching or practice of the truth. However, in Acts 17 and other places he used different approaches in preaching the one true Gospel, and he taught we should modify our practices, on non-essential matters, for the sake of weaker believers (Romans 14), and as much as possible be at peace with everyone (Romans 12:18).
 

Q: In 1 Cor 9:20; 1 Cor 10:33, is Paul trying to please men as Gal 1:10 says Paul does not?
A: Paul is trying to be all things to all men to win them to Christ, but that does not include compromising the truth.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 9:24, are we to run to obtain a goal, or not run to obtain a goal, as Rom 9:16 says?
A: We are to strive as though we are obtaining a goal, and Romans 9:16 does not contradict this. Romans 9:16 reminds us that all our striving does not save us; it is God who saves us.
We strive not to get saved, but we strive to show our love and gratitude to God who saved us. See When Critics Ask p.458 and Haley's Alleged Discrepancies of the Bible p.249 for more info.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 9:24, will only one Christian receive the prize?
A: No, according to 2 Timothy 4:8. However, as a runner does his best to be the first-place winner, we should strive no less diligently that our lives would be a "first-place victory" for Christ.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 9:24, why is Paul talking to the Corinthians about racing?
A: Perhaps because he knew it was an illustration with which they could relate. The Isthmian games, held near Corinth, were second only to the Olympic games in importance. Athletes had a rigorous ten-month training process, and the goal was to win a laurel wreath, and laurel wreaths soon fade.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 9:27, what does the Greek word for "beat" mean?
A: The Greek word hupopiaz means to be punched black and blue. The Corinthians were serious athletes, and boxing and wrestling were among their chief sports.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 9:27, was there a chance Paul could be cast away? If not, what does this mean?
A: Four points to consider in the answer.
1. From God's eternal perspective, God knew for certain who would persevere and have eternal live.
2. The elect who go to Heaven can lose their rewards.
3. From our earthly perspective, some can appear to be saved, but in the end go to Hell.
4. Christians disagree on whether or not any genuine Christians can lose their salvation.
See the discussion on Ephesians 1:14 and Hebrews 6:4-10 for more info.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 10:8, who were the 23,000 people who died in one day?
A: Genuine Christians give four interpretations.
1. Exodus 32:28 mentions a time early in the Exodus, when Aaron made the golden calf, and 3,000 were killed by the sword in one day. At the same time, others were killed by plague in Exodus 32:35. See Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.141,401 and When Critics Ask p.458-459 for more on this answer.
2. Paul made a numerical typo when he wrote this down. Hard Sayings of the Bible p.597-598 gives this interpretation. This would mean that the Bible is not inerrant (without any error), but they Bible would be infallible (without significant theological error).
3. Numbers 25:9 mentions the time late in the Exodus at Shittim, when the Midianite women tempted the Israelite men and 24,000 men were killed. Two possible ways to resolve the numbers, is:
3a) 23,000 is only one day, and 24,000 is the total
3b) 23,000 is only the people, and 24,000 is the people and the leaders.
See The Bible Knowledge Commentary : New Testament p.526 and The Expositor's Bible Commentary volume 10 p.249 for more info on 3.
Tertullian said 24,000 died in the plague of Midian, but did not specify in how many days in On Modesty ch.6 p.79
4. Paul is referring to those who died, and 24,000 is a round number, possibly from a Rabbinic tradition. See Bible Difficulties and Seeming Contradictions p.202-203 for more info on this answer.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 10:9, since God cannot be tempted, how did the Israelites tempt God here?
A: The Greek word used here can also mean to "test" the Lord. See the discussion on Exodus 17:2.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 10:10, what does the Bible tell us of the bad things people did?
A: A wise person can learn from other's mistakes, before making them too. The Bible wants us to be wise.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 10:13, do we ever have unbearable temptation?
A: No. Regardless of what we might feel at the time, 1 Corinthians 10:13 is true. On our own strength, perhaps we might have unbearable temptation. But when we rely on God, we will never have unbearable temptation. In moments of temptation, we can pray to God, read the Bible, and call on the phone other believers to pray with them. If we cry out to God, he will always provide a way out of the temptation.
 

Q: Since 1 Cor 10:14, says to flee from idolatry should Christians not wear crosses as Jehovah's Witnesses say?
A: No. See the discussion on Exodus 20:4-5 for the answer.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 10:20, and Dt 32:16-17, isn't religion always a good thing?
A: No. First what Rev. Moon's false religion called the Unification Church says, and then what the Bible says.
Divine Principle p.9: "Religion came into existence as the means to accomplish the purpose of goodness in following the way of God... according to the intention of the original mind. The need for different kinds of understanding compelled the appearance of various religions."
The Bible has much to say about devoutly religious idolatry.
1 Corinthians 10:20 "...the sacrifices of pagans are offered to demons, not to God..." (Perhaps a reference to Psalm 106:37)
Jonah 2:8 "Those who cling to worthless idols forfeit the grace that could be theirs."
Jeremiah 2:5 "...They followed worthless idols and became worthless themselves."
There are many other verses against idolatry. The point is that if you want to follow the real God, you have to destroy all your idols.
In the early church, here was Origen's understanding using the Scythian religion as an example, "And although the Scythians may well call Pappaeus the supreme God, yet we will not yield our assent to this; granting, indeed, that there is a Supreme Deity, although we do not give the name Pappaeus to Him as His proper title, but regard it as one which is agreeable to the demon to whom was allotted the desert of Scythia, with its people and language. He, however, who gives God His title in the Scythian tongue, or in the Egyptian or in any language in which he has been brought up, will not be guilty of sin." Origen Against Celsus book 5 ch.46 p.564.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 10:21,27, are we not to eat what is sacrificed to idols as 1 Cor 10:21 and Acts 15:29 show, or is it OK as 1 Cor 10:27 and 1 Cor 7:4,7 show?
A: 1 Corinthians itself answers this.
1. It is not OK if you are participating in a religious act. (1 Corinthians 10:20-21)
2. Since all food came from God, eating is OK as long as it does not violate your conscience to do so. (1 Corinthians 8:4,8; 10:23-27)
3. It is not OK if it does violate your conscience, or in situations where it caused someone else to stumble. (1 Corinthians 8:9-13; 10:28-30)
 

Q: In 1 Cor 10:24 (KJV), should every man be "seeking another's wealth"?
A: This King James Version expression means we should seek for others to benefit. The literal Greek is "let no man seek his own things, but each one that of the other." (The Interlinear Bible Jay P. Green, Sr. ed. p.889)
 

Q: Does 1 Cor 11:2-16 show a prohibition of homosexuality?
A: It does not state it, but it implies men and women are not to be3 in opposite roles. While Romans 1:26-27; Leviticus 18:22,24; 20:13 and 1 Corinthians 6:9-10 are more direct, 1 Corinthians 11:2-16 indicate that masculine dress by women, and feminine dress by men, are not what God desires. Kirk R. MacGregor wrote an article on this, "Is 1 Corinthians 11:2-16 a Prohibition of Homosexuality?" in Bibliotheca Sacra vol.166 (April-June 2009) p.201-216.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 11:3, since the word "God" has two meanings in the Bible, is it true that we can call Jesus "god", as in a great and powerful person (1 Cor 8:5; John 10:35-36), but not call him "God" as the one True God (Dt 6:4; 1 Cor 8:6; 1 Cor 11:3) as Jehovah's Witnesses say?
A: There are at least three meanings of the word "God" in the Bible. The widest sense is a perceived powerful being, a so-called god as in 1 Corinthians 8:5 and John 10:35. Another meaning is God the Father (Colossians 1:3 and Ephesians 1:3). A third meaning is Jesus (and the Holy Spirit) is in John 1:1, 20:28-29 and other verses. Another meaning is all Three. Jesus Himself shows He is God in more than the widest meaning in John 10:36 and John 5:22-23. If Jesus only meant He was God in the sense of John 10:35, why did He say John 10:36?
Jehovah's Witnesses Answered Verse by Verse p.96-97 cogently points out that if JW's would like "one God" in 1 Corinthians 8:6 to prove only the Father and not Jesus is God, then they would have to believe that "one Lord" in the same verse means that Jesus is our Lord and God the Father is not.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 11:3, how is man the head of woman?
A: In the family the wife is subject to the husband according to 1 Peter 3:1 and Ephesians 4:22,24. When agreement cannot be reached, the wife must obey the husband, as long as it does not contradict what the Bible says. See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.599-605 and The Bible Knowledge Commentary : New Testament p.528-529 for more info.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 11:3, how is God the "head" of Christ?
A: A human son and father are equally human, and equal in value in God's eyes, yet the father and son have different roles. The father might send the son somewhere, and the son should obey the father. Similarly, Jesus and the Father are equal in nature and honor, yet they have different roles too. Jesus was the one who came to earth and obeyed the Father (Hebrews 5:8; Philippians 2:7-8).
As a side note, in discussing 1 Corinthians 11:1-3, Ambrose of Milan (340-397 A.D.) in On the Christian Faith 4:3:31, interpreted "God" as God in Trinity, not God the Father. However, the interpretation of almost all others disagrees with Ambrose on this point. The interpretation of Ambrose would be difficult to reconcile with Ephesians 1:3,17 and Hebrews 1:9.
See The Complete Book of Bible Answers p.111 for more info.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 11:3, Mt 24:36, and Php 2:7-8, is Jesus less than the Father?
A: Of course Jesus was less than the Father in glory when Jesus was on earth. In heaven, He is equal to God the Father in nature, glory, honor, and other things. He is (in heaven today) less than the Father in the matter of origin (Jesus was begotten of the Father) role, and rank. Roughly, Jesus is equal to the Father the same as a son is equal to his father. Jesus is less than the Father the same as a son is less than his father. The Bible shows both sides, and honest believers can do no less. We are to honor the Son as we honor the Father, as John 5:22-23 commands.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 11:3, does saying Jesus is less than the Father, in any way, contradict the Trinity?
A: If you misunderstand the Trinity, or find others who are ignorant, that detracts nothing from God's truth. From bishop Theophilus of Antioch (168-181/188 A.D.) to now, Christians have continuously taught the Trinity. Christians have taught that Jesus was equal in nature, yet the Father is His head.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 11:3-9, is this a male chauvinistic passage?
A: Perhaps radical feminist standards, but by God's standards, no. Men and women are of equal value (Galatians 3:28), but men and women do have different roles, as 1 Corinthians 11:3-9; 14:34-35 and 1 Timothy 2:11-15 show. See the discussion on these verses for more info, as well as Hard Sayings of the Bible p.602-605 and The Bible Knowledge Commentary : New Testament p.528-529.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 11:5, should women wear veils today when they pray?
A: For that culture they should, as a sign of respect and submission to their husbands. Back then, women would have worn veils when they prayed. Genuine Christians disagree on today.
1. Some say that was true because of their culture.
2. Other Christian women do wear head coverings when they are in church. Now That's a Good Question p.347-348 and 1001 Bible Questions Answered p.103 advocate this second view.
See When Critics Ask p.459 for a different answer, and Hard Sayings of the Bible p.602-605.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 11:10, why should women veil themselves because of angels?
A: While some point out that the Greek word angelos can mean human messenger, the context indicates angelic angels and not just human messengers. Three other interpretations are:
1. Fallen angels: such as the beings in Genesis 6:2-5. (Tertullian (200 A.D.) On the Veiling of Virgins 9 and On Prayer 22). These beings might have been fallen angels alone, or they might have been demon-possessed men. Dressing in a way the culture would consider immodest gives fallen angels opportunities to tempt men.
2. All angels: "Angels were spectators of the church" (The Bible Knowledge Commentary : New Testament p.529). Right in the middle of the worship of God that angels, good and bad were observing, a disrespect of their role is most unbecoming. Paul has a similar thought, of angels being present in worship, in 1 Timothy 5:21.
3. Both: Since both of the previous are true, Paul might have had both in mind.
See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.605-608 for a discussion of all views and why the second view has more weight.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 11:11-12, how does woman being from man and man being from woman relate to all things being from God?
A: There is no purpose for males of a species apart from females of a species and vice versa. Ultimately, there is no purpose of anything apart from God. As a Russian Christian metaphorically asked, "if a road does not lead to a church, then what good is it?"
 

Q: In 1 Cor 11:13, what kinds of spiritual truths should we "judge for ourselves" whether or not to accept?
A: We should accept uncritically all truths scripture states. We should test and judge all other alleged truths, including all interpretations of Scripture. It is important not to confuse our interpretation of scripture with what scripture teaches. Proverbs 30:5-6 and 1 Corinthians 4:6 emphasize we must not add to God's word. Even in the Fall of Eve, both Satan and Eve presented their interpretations as God's word.
In 1 Corinthians 11:13, Paul is inviting the readers to observe that what Paul is writing here agrees with their perceptions. He is not saying to sit in judgment on God's word, or that if these truths do not agree with their perceptions, then reject these truths.
 

Q: Does 1 Cor 11:14 teach that men should not have long hair, and women must have long hair?
A: Some Christians say that is as true today as it was back then. Other Christians say it was cultural. All Christians can agree on three points.
1) Back then, since a woman with a shaved head made her living immorally, Christian women should not have very short hair. It would give the appearance of evil (2 Corinthians 8:22; 1 Thessalonians 5:22).
2) 1 Corinthians 11:14 and Deuteronomy 22:5 both are against men looking like women and women looking like men.
3) If a Christian is wrong on this point, it is a small error compared to worshipping idols or following a false Jesus.
See When Critics Ask p.460-461 for a different answer.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 11:14, if a church believes wrong on the length of the hair of men and women, does that prove that church is not a church of God?
A: Before answering that question, let's make a few observations. A church could still be a true local gathering of the one church of God if it, at least temporarily:
a) Tolerated having an immoral member (1 Corinthians 5:1)
b) Division among its members (1 Corinthians 3:3)
c) Had some who were legalistic (Galatians 2:13)
To answer the question: if a church could still be a true church of God with these problems, presumably a church could still be a church of God if they had the wrong opinion about a secondary issue like hair.
However, if one preaches a different Gospel (Galatians 1:6-9), or denies the atonement or resurrection (1 Corinthians 15:1-7), their faith is worthless. As to those who have the form of godliness but deny its power, we are to keep away from them as 2 Timothy 3:5 commands.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 11:19, why did Paul say there had to be "heresies" among the Corinthians?
A: Heresies, or false teaching, were not desirable, but they were inevitable among people who were not listening to God's authority.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 11:23-26, are these the exact words of the Last Supper, or are the words of the Gospels the exact words in Mt 26:21-29; Mk 14:18-24, and Lk 22:14-20?
A: Probably neither is a complete transcript of the Last Supper; a paraphrase can still be true. The point of Paul and the Gospel writers paraphrasing some of the conversation for Last Supper is that we look beyond rote memorization of formulas, to see the common content.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 11:24, should it say "broken for you" as the KJV and NKJV say, or should it be "for you" as in the NIV?
A: There are Greek manuscripts for both ways.
"Broken" is absent:
p46 (Chester Beatty II) 100-150 A.D.
Vaticanus 325-350 A.D.
Sinaiticus [Si] 340-350 A.D. (original)
Ephraemi Rescriptus [C] 5th century (original)
Alexandrinus c.450 A.D.
Athanasius 326-373 A.D.
"Broken" is present
Sinaiticus [Si] 340-350 A.D. (corrected)
Ephraemi Rescriptus [C] 5th century (3rd corrector)
Gothic 493-555 A.D.
John Chrysostom 370-407 A.D.
Byzantine Lectionary
 

Q: In 1 Cor 11:28-29, how is eating and drinking the Last Supper unworthily sinning against the body and blood of our Lord?
A: How we approach the remembrance of the sacrifice of Jesus shows how we value it. It is an extremely serious sin to take lightly what Jesus did for us.
See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.608-610 and the Believer's Bible Commentary p.1789 for more info.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 11:28,31, are we supposed to judge ourselves, or not?
A: Two points to consider in the answer.
We are to judge ourselves in the sense of evaluating ourselves and seeking how we may live a more Christlike life. Paul is serious when he says to examine ourselves in 2 Corinthians 13:5-6. David asks God to show him anything in him that is offensive in Psalms 139:24.
We are not to judge ourselves, in the sense of comparing ourselves with others, or attempting to determine how we will stand before God.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 11:29-31, if people take the Lord's Supper unworthily today, will they get sick and die?
A: God can discipline believers then and today, however He wants. It is not automatic that they will get sick, but nothing restricts God from disciplining each believer however He sees fit.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 11:33 (KJV), what does "tarry" mean?
A: Tarry means to wait for someone or something.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 12:3, if anyone seriously says three times that Jesus is Lord, are they then saved, as some in the local church of Witness Lee taught?
A: It is only necessary to say these or similar words to accept Jesus one time. However, these words are not a magic formula. No magic formula is sufficient, even if the magic formula is sincerely spoken. Ultimately it is not the words or actions that save us, or even the Gospel that saves, it is God who saves.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 12:3, does everyone that says 'Jesus is Lord' saying this by the Holy Spirit?
A: No. It is not the uttering of syllables in a language that counts, but the meaning of those words. A person can say 'Jesus is Lord', in any language, and really accept Jesus as their only Lord, only by the Holy Spirit.
This verse also says something about our abilities apart from God. Apart from the Holy Spirit's working, fallen man is not able to genuinely acknowledge Jesus as Lord.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 12:7 and arguably Rom 8:9-11, does every Christian have a manifestation of the Spirit? In other words, if you do not have a manifestation, does that mean you are not a true Christian?
A: Every true Christian has either one of the gifts listed in 1 Corinthians 12:8-31, or else other gifts that are not listed here. Nothing in 1 Corinthians 12 says this list is exhaustive. Not all of these gifts are "spectacular" such as miracles, healing, and speaking in tongues. Some are gifts of wisdom, knowledge, and helps. Romans 12:6-8 mentions other gifts.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 12:28 (KJV), what is the gift of "governments"?
A: This is the gift of administration.
 

Q: Does 1 Cor 12:28 show that we are to have apostles today?
A: There are three meanings of the word "apostle".
1. The Greek word for apostle can mean "one sent". Barnabas was a messenger and an apostle in this sense in Acts 4:36 and 14:14. In earlier centuries in the Greek it could refer to an admiral in the navy. While there are apostles today, since there are mailmen, and naval officers, that meaning of apostle is not what we are referring to here.
2. Revelation 21:14 says the city of the New Jerusalem will have exactly twelve foundations, and on them will be the names of the twelve "apostles of the Lamb". Since the twelve apostles have already lived, there are no more "apostles of the Lamb".
3. There is a third sense of the use of the word "apostle" in the New Testament. Just as there can be false prophets and teachers, 2 Corinthians 11:13 and Revelation 2:2 show there can be people who masquerade as apostles. They are false apostles, which were not sent from God.
See When Cultists Ask p.230-231 for more info.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 12:30, are all true Christians supposed to be speaking in tongues, or not?
A: Both non-Charismatic and some Charismatic Christians agree that most Christians do not have the gift of speaking in tongues mentioned in 1 Corinthians 12:30, just as most are not apostles and prophets.
Non-Charismatic Christians say that even in Paul's time, all Christians were not supposed to speak in tongues, period.
Most Charismatic Christians differentiate between a few having gifts of public speaking in tongues in church and private speaking in tongues in private prayer. Many, but not all say all Christians ought to (but unfortunately do not) use the private speaking in tongues. The sole scriptural support that all should be speaking in tongues (1 Corinthians 14:5) is indirect at best.
Many Charismatics link the term "baptism of the Holy Spirit" with speaking in tongues and believe this is a second blessing that non-Charismatics do not have. However, the Believer's Bible Commentary p.1794 states flatly that it is wrong to teach that everyone has the gift of tongues, or that tongues are the [one and only] sign of baptism of the Spirit.
1 Corinthians 14:1,5 says that Paul wishes all spoke in tongues, but rather that they prophesy. This phrasing is similar to when Eldad and Medad were prophesying in Numbers 11:27-29, and Joshua told Moses to stop them. Moses replied, "I wish that all the Lord's people were prophets." This does not mean that every Israelite was supposed to be a prophet.
See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.610-613, as well as the next question for more info.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 12:30, do at least some Christians genuinely speak in tongues today?
A: Genuine Christians disagree on this.
Charismatics: believe the gift is in practice today. As one Charismatic friend explained, Charismatics can be categorized as "Charismatics with a big C" and "Charismatics with a little C". Charismatics with a big C emphasize the spiritual gifts as much as they emphasize Christ. They do not often want to work in unity with non-Charismatics. Charismatics with a little C, while believing non-Charismatics are wrong on this doctrine, can see that non-Charismatic Christians are used by God in many other ways, and want to work with them, because the Christ that unites us is greater than the non-essential doctrines that divide us.
Cultic Oneness Pentecostals: besides denying the Trinity, teach that everyone today who does not speak in tongues is going to Hell.
Anti-Charismatics: teach that all God-given speaking in tongues passed away a long time ago, and no speaking in tongues should be permitted in any Christian meeting, and 1 Corinthians 14:39 is a verse of the New Testament that should be ignored today.
Other Non-Charismatics: Differ on whether or not speaking in tongues, or all spiritual gifts have passed away. They either believe that some speaking in tongues could be genuine, or believe all speaking in tongues is not divinely inspired, but nobody is perfect and this is a kind of error that can be tolerated, and 1 Corinthians 14:39 is not to be ignored today.
Caution: It is wrong to say that all speaking in tongues today is Satanic. Non-Charismatics and many Charismatics agree that at least some attempts at speaking in tongues are neither from God nor Satan, but someone foolishly trying to speak in tongues with their own natural abilities.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 12:31 (KJV), why should we covet the spiritual gifts, since Ex 20:17 says coveting is wrong?
A: This Greek word is better translated "eagerly desire". 1 Corinthians 12:31 says we are to eagerly desire the spiritual gifts, while Exodus 20:17 does not deny this, but says we are not to covet possessions or people that belong to our neighbor. See When Critics Ask p.461 for more info.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 13:7-8, why should we always trust others, since Mic 7:5-6 and Jer 9:4-5; 17:5 says we are not?
A: We are to trust others, but we are not to trust in others. Even when we trust others, there are qualifications.
Jeremiah 9:4-5 and Micah 7:5-6 instruct the prophet, and believers living in those dark times, not to trust in their neighbors, or even there own household.
Jeremiah 17:5 says one who puts their trusts in man (either himself or others) instead of God is cursed.
1 Corinthians 13:7-8 gives us the ideal for love. The Greek words, panta pisteuei, literally mean "to have faith in all". The Greek word here for faith does not mean mere intellectual assent, but a saving faith that includes putting our trust or dependence on as well as intellectual assent.
Since no one seriously thinks Paul is advocating belief in false prophets and lies that you have to disbelieve God's word to believe, what does believing all mean? This phrase is not saying to believe all people, but to believe all of the truth. The Bible Knowledge Commentary : New Testament p.535 points out that the things we are to especially believe are going just a page or two in our Bible in 1 Corinthians 15:11.
See Alleged Discrepancies of the Bible by Haley's Alleged Discrepancies of the Bible p.262 for more info.
 

Q: Does 1 Cor 13:9-11 prove that spiritual gifts have passed away?
A: The three gifts mentioned in 1 Corinthians 12:8-10 (knowledge, prophecy, and tongues) will pass away when the "perfect" comes. "Perfect" could refer to perfect thing, state, or person. Three possibilities for this condition are:
1) Completion of the New Testament
2) When the church has matured enough
3) When Christ comes again
The Bible Knowledge Commentary : New Testament p.536 is a commentary by the faculty of Dallas Theological Seminary. It declares that interpretation 1) is unlikely, because it does not fit with 1 Corinthians 13:12. They say that there is much to commend the third view. Zechariah 13:3-6 also says that after a fountain is opened to cleanse Jerusalem from sin and impurity, the spirit of prophecy will pass away.
Some say if 1 Corinthians 13:9-11 proves speaking in tongues has passed away, then knowledge has passed away too, and perfection has already come. However, it might not be knowledge that passes away, but the supernatural gift of knowledge.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 13:13, if someone has faith, hope, and love, why do they need to read the Bible any more or know doctrine?
A: Faith, hope, and love, do not mean faith in faith, hope for anything, and love of self. These mean faith in God, hope in God's promises, and love for God and others.
We need to know more about the God we have faith in, to realize that our hope is sure, and to love Him and other people more. In Ephesians 1:17, Paul; writes that they may know God better, that we might know the hope to which God has called us.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 14, what is Paul basically saying?
A: Paul said to the Corinthians the following:
1. He spoke in tongues, and it was good for each one of them to desire to speak in tongues. (verses 5a,18)
2. Each should desire to prophecy more than speaking in tongues (verses 1,5b, 19).
3. The legitimate purpose for speaking in tongues (verses 2,4a) and prophecy (verses 3,4b).
4. They over-emphasized speaking in tongues; they should instead emphasize gifts that build up the church (verses 4-5,26,28).
5. The correct way to practice speaking in tongues in church is orderly, at most two or three, with an interpreter (verses 6-13, 26-33).
6. Do not forbid orderly speaking in tongues with an interpreter (verse 39).
 

Q: In 1 Cor 14:1,5,12, should we seek spiritual gifts?
A: Yes. We should seek every good thing God wants to give us. Also, if we have a spiritual gift, no scripture says we should then stop desiring other gifts. 1 Corinthians 12:31 says we are to [always] desire the spiritual gifts, and 1 Corinthians 14:12 and 1 Peter 4:10-11 mention that we should try to excel at the gifts we have. Nevertheless, we should not seek the gifts more than we seek closeness with God.
There are three cuations on spiritual gifts. First, anything besides God can become an idol, even a spiritual gift. Don't desire a spiritual gift more than God. Second, don't be defined by your spiritual gifts. Your identity is as a child of God, not the spiritual gifts the Holy Spirit has given you. Third, if you know that the Holy Spirit has given you a spiritual gift, don't let that stop you from seeking spiritual gifts; the Holy Spirit can give you more of that gift, or additional spiritual gifts, later.
See the discussion on 1 Corinthians 12:30 for more on whether or not speaking in tongues and prophesy are for today.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 14:1,5, is Paul telling the Corinthians they should desire the gifts of speaking in tongues and prophecy, or not?
A: See the discussion on 1 Corinthians 14 for the answer.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 14:21, why did Paul say this quote came from the Law (Torah), since it actually came from Isa 28:11-12?
A: The Sadducees and others only accepted the first five books of the Bible as the Torah, but the Pharisees considered all the Old Testament Torah. See the Wycliffe Bible Commentary p.65 for more info.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 14:22-25, how is speaking in tongues a sign for unbelievers and prophecy a sign for believers?
A: Three points to consider in the answer.
A mystery: Speaking in tongues (with no interpreter) will be a mystery to unbelievers, causing them to think you are mad, and that is improper. (1 Corinthians 14:23)
Evidence: When an unbeliever hears proper prophesying, and hears the secrets of his heart laid bare, he will see this as evidence that God is among us. (1 Corinthians 14:25)
Both: Revelation (prophecy) and tongues each had a proper place in the Corinthian church. (1 Corinthians 14:26)
 

Q: In 1 Cor 14:23, should Christians ever do things that will prompt other people to think Christians are mad?
A: Yes and no, properly understood.
1. Some non-believers think Christians are mad just for living as Christians. This is unavoidable, and Christians should obey God with little regard to what others think. Jesus and the prophets were accused of being mad and/or of the devil.
2. However, we should not anything for the sole purpose of making people think we are mad, since it does not edify. The only example in the Bible was done by David in fear, out of desperation, in 1 Samuel 21:13-15.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 14:28, should people speak in tongues in church without an interpreter? What about singing in the spirit?
A: 1 Corinthians 14:28 is clear: no speaking in tongues in church (public or private) without an interpreter.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 14:32, since the spirits of the prophets are under the control of the prophets, does this prove the Holy Spirit is not God, as one non-Trinitarian claims?
A: No. First an explanation of the logic, and then the answer. Since A) the spirits of the prophets are under the control of the prophets, and B) God is not under our control, therefore: the Holy Spirit is not God.
While A and B are true, the argument is invalid: the spirits of people are not the Holy Spirit.
Do not forget the "s": The word "spirits" is plural, not singular in the Greek. Aland et al's list of manuscript variations shows no manuscript that says otherwise. Plural is the unanimous translation of the KJV, NASB, NKJV, NIV, NRSV, Jay P. Green's literal translation, Williams, Kenneth S. Wuest's translation, and George Ricker Berry's translation.
Each person has a spirit, soul, and body, according to 1 Thessalonians 5:23. The "spirits" in 1 Corinthians 14:32 are neither the Holy Spirit, nor demonic "familiar" spirits, but the gift or spirit of prophecy that is given by the Holy Spirit to the person. One can read John Chrysostom's Homily on 1 Corinthians (p.219) and The Bible Knowledge Commentary : New Testament p.540 for more info.
However, the "spirits of the prophets" are still in communication with the Holy Spirit, and Novatian mistakenly used this verse in speaking of the Holy Spirit, and paraphrasing the verse as singular "spirit" in Treatise on the Trinity chapter 29.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 14:33, how come God is not the author of confusion, since God confused mankind's language at the tower of Babel in Gen 11:7-8?
A: The Greek word for "confusion" can mean "disorder" or "tumult". God is not the author of confusion in the churches, but on occasion He does confuse the thoughts, plans, and languages of those who are in revolt against God. See Haley's Alleged Discrepancies of the Bible p.77 for more info.
 

Q: Since 1 Cor 14:33 says God is not a God of disorder or confusion, does this verse prove thus prove the Trinity is false as Jehovah's Witnesses claim in their booklet, Should You Believe in the Trinity (1989) p.4)?
A: - not hardly. Jesus coming to earth could not be comprehended by the Pharisees, not because they were not intelligent enough, but the Messiah coming to them could fit into their theology or plans.
Jehovah's Witnesses almost universally say the Trinity is false. Mormons generally say so, though I have met a few that say the Trinity is true. With Jehovah's Witnesses and both types of Mormons though, the issue has not been as much denying the Trinity as not even understanding what the Trinity really is. See the discussion on Matthew 28:19 for a seven point summary of what God has revealed in the Bible about the Trinity.
The mysterious aspects to the true God are great, as Paul points out in 1 Timothy 3:16. In fact, in the same book Jehovah's Witnesses grab this verse from Paul in 1 Corinthians 2:6-16 says that people without God's spirit will not understand God's wisdom. While it is not confusing to true believers who have been instructed, one can see how Jehovah's Witnesses could call their lack of understanding on this confusion.
See When Cultists Ask p.231-232 and The Complete Book of Bible Answers p.66-67 for more info.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 14:33 and Rom 15:33, since God is the author of peace, why is God is warlike in Ex 15:3 and Isa 51:15?
A: As a human analogy, a country could desire nothing but peace, yet wage war fiercely when it or an ally is attacked. God being the author of peace does not prevent Him from also being warlike. Jesus is the Prince of Peace, yet in Revelation Jesus will come and essentially wage war, slaughtering entire armies. See Haley's Alleged Discrepancies of the Bible p.92 for more info.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 14:34-35 and 1 Tim 2:11,12, why were women silent in the churches, since they prophesied in New Testament times in Acts 2:18; 21:9, and 1 Cor 11:5?
A: Genuine Christians disagree on this answer. Many Christians point out that the word can mean chattering. Other Christians say it was at that time in that culture. Other Christians believe this still applies today.
1. Assuming 1 Corinthians 14:34-35 prohibits all talking in church, it only refers to "in the churches." No verse prohibits believing women prophesying outside of the church.
2. Some say the Greek word in 1 Corinthians 14:34-35 may refer to "chatter", and while prophesying, praying, and singing is fine for them, chattering is not. However, the Believer's Bible Commentary p.1802 says that the word did not mean chatter in Koine Greek. "The same word is used of God in verse 21 of this chapter, and in Hebrews 1:1. It means to speak authoritatively."
Regardless, 1 Timothy 2:11,12 says women were to learn in quietness and not to teach men.
See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.613-616 for more info.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 14:38, should the word be "ignorant" or "ignored"?
A: If nothing else, this is an interesting study of how Bible manuscripts differ. The difference in Greek is two letters ("ai" vs. "w"). The third edition of the Greek New Testament (ed. by Aland et al.) classifies this manuscript variation as "B" - "some degree of doubt"
Ignored - is in the following:
Original Sinaiticus [Si] 340-350 A.D.
Alexandrinus [A] c.450 A.D.
Bohairic [Boh] and Sahidic [Sah] Coptic 3rd/4th century
Origen's Greek 225-253/254 A.D.
Later Syriac 6th-7th century
Ignorant - is in the following:
p46 (Chester Beatty II) 100-150 A.D.
Old Syriac 4th-5th century
Correction in Sinaiticus [Si] 340-350 A.D.
Armenian [Arm] from 5th century
Alexandrinus correction c.450 A.D.
Latin Vulgate [Vg] 4th and 5th centuries
Ethiopic [Eth] from c.500 A.D.
Byzantine tradition
Summary: Ignored appears most promising for those who favor the original Alexandrian manuscript tradition. The NIV favors this, but mentions both. Ignorant appears most promising for those who the favor the earliest manuscript and the Latin and Byzantine manuscript families. The KJV and NKJV mention just "ignorant". Either way, this variation arose early, 200-254 A.D. Finally, though this is one of the two or three most significant variations in 1 Corinthians does this really matter if we are ignorant of it, or else ignore it?
 

Q: In 1 Cor 15:1-4, what about some liberal Christians who claim to be Christian, yet deny that Christ died for our sins, and that he actually rose again on the third day?
A: As 1 Corinthians 15:1-4 says, sadly, their faith is worthless. Unless they change, they will go to Hell when they die. Other verses that show the primacy of the atonement are Romans 3:25, 5:6-10, 1 John 2:2, Hebrews 9:11 - 10:18, and John 1:29 are a few of the many others verses that stress the centrality of the atonement.
An interesting note is that even the Jewish skeptic Isaac Asimov, in Asimov's Guide to the Bible p.1023 says, "James' conversion to belief may have come about through a sight of the resurrected Jesus. At least Paul, in his First Epistle to the Corinthians lists him among the witnesses to the resurrection:" If even a skeptic like Asimov can consider the possibility that people saw the resurrected Jesus, he was doing better than some liberal Christians who could not even entertain the idea.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 15:1-4, was Jesus not bodily raised because Jesus' body was invaded by Satan, as Rev. Moon claims?
A: First what Rev. Moon's Divine Principle (fifth ed. 1977) actually says, and then the answer from the Bible.
Divine Principle p.170 "Man has hitherto entertained the wrong idea that the expiration of man's physical life is the death brought about by the fall. Consequently, we have believed that the resurrection of the passed-away saints would be realized through the restorations of their once corrupted and decomposed physical bodies to their original state."
Divine Principle p.170 "Therefore, 'resurrection' means the phenomena occurring in the process of man's restoration, according to the providence of restoration, from the state of having fallen under Satanic dominion, back to the direct dominion of God."
Divine Principle p.289 "Due to man's fall, even man's dead body was invaded by Satan....[Jacob, Moses] After the death of Jesus, there also were problems concerning his body (Matthew 28:12-13)."
Divine Principle p.360 "As we well know through the Bible, Jesus after the resurrection was not the same Jesus who had lived with his disciples before his crucifixion. He was no longer a man seen through physical eyes.... He once suddenly appeared in a closed room..."
Divine Principle p.360-361 "Jesus, in order to save mankind, had established the spiritual foundation of faith..., after giving up his physical body to the cross as a sacrifice."
Divine Principle p.147-148 "Because the Jewish people disbelieved Jesus and delivered him up for crucifixion, his body was invaded by Satan, and he was killed. Therefore, even when Christians believe in and become one body with Jesus, whose body was invaded by Satan, their bodies still remain subject to Satan's invasion."
What the Bible Says:
In John 2:19-21 Jesus specifically talked about raising His body. Either Jesus was wrong, or Rev. Moon was wrong.
Philippians 3:21 tells of the great promise that Jesus will transform our bodies to be like His glorious body. It is hard to see Unificationists (those who follow Rev. Moon) getting too excited about what Paul joyfully wrote.
In John 20:24-28, either Jesus deceived Thomas by fooling Thomas into thinking Jesus had a physical body, or else Jesus really did have a physical body.
Acts 2:31-32 says that Jesus' body did not see decay. This strongly implies that Jesus' body was not invaded by Satan.
Conclusion: Either Jesus and the apostles were wrong, or Rev. Moon must be wrong.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 15:1-4,12-16, does all Christianity fall if Jesus' resurrection could somehow be proven to not have occurred?
A: Yes it does. But even by the standards of rules of evidence in the American legal system, you could show in a court of law that it occurred beyond a reasonable doubt. While there is not space to give all the arguments for the resurrection, the arguments generally fall into three categories.
1. God's prophecy in the Old Testament
2. Eyewitness accounts
3. Writings of others, both friendly and hostile
4. Inability to find a suitable motive, means, and explanation for the missing body
5. The subsequent testimony of the apostles, eleven out of twelve who suffered and died for Christ. If anyone would know if it were a fraud, they would. Nobody would die for what they themselves believed was a lie. As one Christian pastor put it, either the tomb is empty or our faith is empty.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 15:1-4, what are the earliest non-Biblical references to the Christian teaching that Christ's blood saved us?
A: This is First Clement chapters 21 and 49, which was written in 97/98 A.D. This was written even before the book of Revelation.
The second extra-Biblical reference was the Epistle of Barnabas (100 A.D.) in chapter 5 among other places.
The third reference is from Ignatius (died either 107 or 116 A.D.) in his letter to the Smyrnaeans chapter 6 says that unless one believes in the blood of Christ, he will be condemned.
After this, the order is a little murky. Polycarp (110-155 A.D.) referred to the atonement in his short letter to the Philippians chapter 1. He said, "... Lord Jesus Christ, who for our sins suffered even unto death, [but] whom God raised from the dead, having loosed the bands of the grave."
The Letter To Diognetus (c.130 A.D.) mentions God sending His own Son as a ransom for us in a sweet exchange in chapter 9.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 15:4, St. Paul says that Jesus Christ "was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the Scriptures". "Scriptures" means the Old Testament. Where was it mentioned in the Old Testament that Jesus would rise from death, and specifically in the third day?
A: That the Messiah would be cut off (killed) is in Daniel 9:26 and Isaiah 53:8-9,12. His resurrection is prophesied in Isaiah 53:11.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 15:5, how did Jesus appear to the "Twelve", since Judas had already left?
A: There were over 70 disciples but "the twelve" was a synonym for the inner circle, a synonym for the disciples, even though Judas was not present. Alternately, this could refer to an appearance after Matthias had already been chosen to replace Judas in Acts 1:21-26. Since people commonly use figures of speech and approximations, the first explanation is most likely the correct one.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 15:5-8, why did Jesus appear only to believers?
A: He did not appear only to those who already believed in Him. James, his brother, did not believe prior to the resurrection. Thomas was full of doubts in John 20:24-29 prior to Jesus appearing to Him. Paul was hardly a believer when Jesus appeared to Paul on the road to Damascus in Acts 9:1-9.
It is true that everyone who say Jesus after his resurrection believed in Him, but then, what would you expect? See When Critics Ask p.461 and When Cultists Ask p.232-233 for more info.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 15:5-8 and Acts 10:40, why did Jesus only appear to some?
A: 1 Corinthians 15:6 says Jesus appeared to over five hundred people. See When Cultists Ask p.233-234 for a more extensive answer.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 15:6 is Paul writing that there are over 500 people who saw Jesus after his resurrection similar to all those today who say they have seen Elvis after he died?
A: Admittedly Paul saying 500 people saw Jesus is not as strong as 500 writings of independent testimonies. However Paul's assertion of over 500 people combined with the accounts of Matthew, Mark, Luke, John, and Peter (1 and 2 Peter) should add credibility, not detract from it.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 15:10, why was Paul boasting, since a person should not boast?
A: Like David in the Psalms, Paul the apostle was free to tell us how he felt. Four points:
1. What Paul said was true, He did do more work.
2. Paul did not boast in Himself, but said it was not him, but the grace of God
3. Yes, Paul might have boasted here when he should not have.
4. It is not inconsistent with the inspiration for Paul, who was not sinless, to tell us this. The inspiration of scripture is not that God mechanically inspired them by telling them every single consonant and vowel. Rather, God chose these men, and gave them the experiences, wisdom, and direct communication from His spirit in tandem, for them to write scripture.
See the discussion on 2 Corinthians 10:13-15 for more info and When Critics Ask p.452-453 for a slightly different answer.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 15:20,22, is the firstfruits Christ, or some believers?
A: The firstfruits is Christ: The NKJV says, "... Christ the firstfruits, afterward those who are Christ's at His coming. The NIV says, "...Christ, the firstfruits; then, when he comes, those who belong to him." The NIV Study Bible p.1756, the Believer's Bible Commentary p.1806, The Bible Knowledge Commentary : New Testament p.543, and The Expositor's Bible Commentary volume 10 p.285 all say this is Christ.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 15:20, since Jesus was the firstfruits of those to be raised, what about Lazarus, whom Jesus raised from the dead earlier?
A: Two points to consider in the answer.
Chronological: Lazarus was raised with his regular physical body that would still die. Jesus was chronologically the first person who was raised with a glorified physical body that would never die or decay (Acts 13:35-39).
Positional: Even ignoring the chronology, firstfruits also means foremost, and Jesus has the position of the firstfruits of everyone who is raised.
Jesus was the first ever raised with a glorified physical body, and He is also the foremost of those who will be raised. See When Critics Ask p.463 for more info.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 15:22, how come all died in Adam, and how come they are all made alive in Christ?
A: All are made alive in Christ in three ways.
1. All people are made alive by the end of the Millennium (Revelation 20:5) before the Great White Throne Judgment in Revelation 20:12-14. A person has to be alive to experience the second death.
2. The offer of salvation and justification is made available to all (Romans 11:32; Titus 2:11; 1 Timothy 2:4-6; 4:10). Jesus is the atoning sacrifice for the whole world in 1 John 2:2.
3. All who believe will have the justification applied to them (1 Timothy 4:10). and live forever in Heaven with God.
 

Q: Is 1 Cor 15:22 false because all of the prophets were sinless, as Baha'is teach in Some Questions Answered p.118-121?
A: 1 Corinthians 15:22 says that all descendents of Adam sinned, and that includes all the prophets except Jesus. It is a common Muslim misconception, which Baha'is have inherited that all of the prophets were sinless. Yet this leads to strange contradictions. Jonah (the godly prophet Yunus to Muslims) ran away to Tarshish and was swallowed by a great fish. Was there no sin in running away? Adam is considered a prophet by Muslims, yet if he did not sin in the Garden of Eden, doesn't your definition of sin become a meaningless phrase? Moses was forbidden to enter the Promised Land because of his losing his temper at Meribah. Since the Lord was angry with Moses in Deuteronomy 3:26, can the Lord be angry with someone who has never sinned?
There is a lesson for everyone here. Sometimes people's distorted preconceptions almost force them to twist the Bible to suite their preconceptions.
 

Q: Does 1 Cor 15:23 show that Mary was taken bodily into Heaven as some Catholic theologians teach?
A: No. It would be hard to believe that any Catholic would appeal to 1 Corinthians 15:23 in speaking of the alleged assumption of Mary, except that When Cultists Ask p.234 says that Ludwig Ott mentioned "the possibility" of this referring to Mary in Ludwig Ott's book, Fundamentals of Catholic Dogma (edited by James Canon Bastible. Published by Tan Books 1960 p.208).
Apparently since 1 Corinthians 15:23 says that everyone goes to Heaven in his [or her] own order, and Christ went to Heaven first, then this somehow shows that Mary went second.
Since this passage does not mention Mary, it is sort of like saying that
1. If Mary was bodily taken into Heaven, Mary must be the firstfruits mentioned here.
2. If Mary was the firstfruits mentioned here, then Mary was bodily taken up into Heaven.
Perhaps the circular reasoning of the argument is the reason Ott said this was just a possibility, and scriptural proof of Mary's assumption was not to be found.
Besides the circular reasoning, a second problem with this argument is that 1 Corinthians 15:22-25 is discussing not assumption, but resurrection. Jesus was the first resurrected with an immortal body. Catholics and Protestants agree that whatever happened to Mary at the end of her earthly life, she was not resurrected. Finally, even if this was discussing bodily assumption into Heaven and not resurrection from the dead, Enoch and Elijah were taken into Heaven prior to Christ.
The attempted use of this verse is instructive to show how far some clever theologians have to go to support the bodily assumption of Mary, though Ott must be credited with honesty, for saying that Scriptural proof is not found.
See When Cultists Ask p.234 for more info.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 15:24, will Christ's kingdom really come to an end and will He give everything over to God the Father, or will Christ's kingdom endure forever as Lk 1:33 and Heb 1:8 say?
A: Both are true. Christ's kingdom has two aspects. Jesus is a conquering king, defeating His enemies, and that part will come to an end. Jesus is the everlasting Prince of Peace, and that part will never end. See Haley's Alleged Discrepancies of the Bible p.137-138 for more info.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 15:25-28, since all will be put under Christ, does that mean all will go to Heaven, as the heresy of universalism teaches?
A: No. Being put under Christ, does not mean one will go to Heaven. Inanimate rocks and demons will be put under Christ, and they will not go to Heaven. See the discussion on Colossians 1:20, Romans 5:19; Romans 8:29-30, and When Cultists Ask p.234-235 for more info.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 15:29, does baptism for the dead mean people do not have to individually believe?
A: No. As the answers to the next four questions show, each person is baptized for themselves, and we do not baptize for dead people. See When Critics Ask p.464-465 for a more extensive answer.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 15:29, should Christians baptize for dead people?
A: No. Paul was saying that if even these non-Christians believed in resurrection as proven by their baptism for the dead, why can't you believe in resurrection? A very similar argument is in Theophilus To Autolycus 1:13. (Theophilus was the Bishop of Antioch from 168-181/188 A.D.)
"Then, as to your denying that the dead are raised ... you believe that Hercules, who burned himself, lives; and that Aesculapius, who was struck with lightning, was raised;..." (Ante-Nicene Fathers volume 2 p.92)
If baptizing for the dead is one of the most important things we can do, like Mormonism teaches, then why are we not once commanded to do this in scripture? Paul said others (they) in 1 Corinthians 15:29. A cult in Paul's time in Greece, called Cerinthians, baptized for the dead, but nobody ever said Christians were to do that. (By the way, Certinthians also taught that Christ came upon Jesus at His baptism, and left Jesus at the cross, so only the man Jesus died, according to the NIV Study Bible footnote on 1 John 4:2 p.1911.)
According to The Bible Knowledge Commentary p.544-545, within the Eleusian Mysteries was the doctrine of washings required for bliss in the afterlife (Pindar Fragment 212, Sophocles Fragment 753.) Baptism on the account of others was known, from Orphica fragment 245. See Hard Sayings of the Bible p.616-618 for more info.
Of course we are not to imitate many of the practices the Corinthians did, such as carnality, immorality, sectarianism, abuse of the Lord's Supper, and denying the physical resurrection of Jesus. If practicing this today as Mormons do leads us to think God required us to do to intensive genealogical study, 1 Timothy 1:3,4 and Titus 3:9 command God's people not to devote themselves to endless genealogies.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 15:29-30, should we practice baptism for the dead, as Mormons teach?
A: First some true facts that are not directly related to the answer, and then the answer.
1. The Greek word, huper, means "on account of", not necessarily "for the sake of".
2. Many people became Christians on account of the witness of Christians who were already martyred.
3. Baptism for all Christians means that in one sense we are all dead men, that is, dead to ourselves and alive in Christ (Colossians 2:11-13)
The answer: The pronouns Paul uses (they, they, and we) make it conspicuous that Paul never said he nor his immediate readers practiced baptism for the dead. Paul did not command, recommend, perform, practice, or say the Corinthians practiced baptism for the dead. In 1 Corinthians 10:18-22, Paul mentions that others sacrificed to idols, but we should not do that either. There is no example of Christians doing baptizing for the dead in the entire Bible, or in the early church. However, some religious pagans in Corinth, called Cerinthians practiced baptism for the dead.
Since there is no command or example of this, and the only known practice was by pagan Cerinthians, Mormons are on rather shaky ground to make this a most important part of their religion".
When talking to Greeks, Paul used writings of pagan Greek poets to echo things that were true, such as in Acts 17:23-29. Jude used true statements in apocryphal books to drive home a point with his listeners. Jesus likewise used, what is called an "ad hominem" argument to prove He was from God in debating with the Pharisees in John 5:31-34.
Paul's point in 1 Corinthians 15:29-30, that even though many Greeks disbelieved and sneered at a physical resurrection (1 Corinthians 15:12; Acts 17:43), yet at the same time proto-Gnostic Cerinthians were baptizing for the dead. Why do they think they need to do this bodily ritual of baptism, if the bodies are forever gone? See Mormons Answered Verse by Verse p.85-87, Now That's a Good Question p.590-591, When Cultists Ask p.235-236, and The Complete Book of Bible Answers p.212-213 for more info.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 15:29-30, what is baptism for the dead?
A: Apart from this verse, we know of only two cases, both pagan practices. Mandaeans in Mesopotamia practiced this, and Cerinthians (who happened to be in Corinth) practiced this. We have no evidence of a single Christian practicing baptism for dead people. See Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties p.401-402 and 1001 Bible Questions Answered p.121-122 for complementary answers.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 15:33, who was Paul quoting?
A: There are two complementary answers.
1. All truth is God's truth. Paul's quote is from a famous playwright named Menander (Thais 218). See The Bible Knowledge Commentary : New Testament p.544-545 and When Cultists Ask p.236-237 and for more info. See also the discussion on Acts 17:16-34.
2. Paul quoted from Isaiah 22:13, except that Paul took out the "you say" that Isaiah had in the middle. Like Paul, Isaiah was not suggesting we follow this hollow saying, but Isaiah was expressing the view of godless people.
By the way, Menander lived approximately 342-291 B.C. Isaiah prophesied from before 739 B.C. to after 682 B.C. Paul likely would have been familiar with Menander as well as Isaiah.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 15:37, does this support the heresy of reincarnation?
A: No, for the following reasons:
1. The glorified body is permanent, and does not die any more.
2. This transformation only happens once.
3. This is a change in our body, not a change of our body.
See the discussion on John 3:3, When Cultists Ask p.237-238 and When Critics Ask p.465-466 for more info.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 15:38-41, does this somehow support the Mormon concept of celestial, terrestrial, and telestial heavens?
A: No. This analogy simply shows that as there are different glories in the (one) physical sky, there are different kinds of glory in the (One) Heaven. The fact that Paul gave three examples (sun, moon, and stars) does mean three heavens, and more than Paul giving four examples in 1 Corinthians 15:39 (men, animals, birds, and fish) means there are four heavens. Heaven would not be Heaven without Jesus being there. See When Cultists Ask p.238-239 for more info.
There are at least three (unnamed) Heavens, according to Paul in 2 Corinthians 12:2. Paul visited the third one.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 15:44, is our resurrected body physical, or spiritual?
A: Paul gave an analogy of the Israelites in the Wilderness and the rock, and that analogy answers this question. The Israelites got water from a physical rock, but not a mere physical rock. It was Christ who was the spiritual force behind that rock. Our resurrected bodies will be physical, but not mere physical bodies. Through Christ we will have an added spiritual dimension as well.
Justin Martyr (wrote about c.138-165 A.D.) was a Greek philosopher who converted to Christianity, which he called "the true philosophy". He was well aware of Greek arguments scoffing at a physical resurrection "in the flesh" and was among the first to answer these arguments in On the Resurrection. The fragments we have of this work are translated in the Ante-Nicene Fathers volume 1 p.294-299
See When Critics Ask p.466-467 or When Cultists Ask p.239-240 for more info and a chart summarizing the differences between our current bodies and our glorified ones.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 15:45, why is Jesus the last Adam?
A: There are key parallels between Adam and Jesus. We inherited severe consequences, including a depraved, sinful nature leading to death, from Adam. All who accept Jesus as their Lord and Savior receive a new nature, and eternal life from Jesus.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 15:45, since Christ was a life-giving spirit, does that mean He did not have a physical body also?
A: No. See the discussion on 1 Corinthians 15:44 for the answer. See also When Critics Ask p.467, and When Cultists Ask p.240-241 for more info, and The Complete Book of Bible Answers p.133-136 for an especially extensive answer.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 15:50, since flesh and blood cannot enter Heaven, how can we be resurrected with physical bodies?
A: Who says a glorified physical body has to have earthly things, like flesh and blood? The Bible does not. Rather 1 Corinthians 15:35-44 simply says they will be different. See When Cultists Ask p.241-241 and When Critics Ask p.468-469 for more info.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 15:51-52, do the terms life and death here mean just faith and unbelief, as Baha'is teach in Baha'u'llah and the New Era p.270?
A: No, scripture is consistent that there will be a physical resurrection.
Besides 1 Corinthians 15:51-52, see:
Dan 12:2 "Multitudes who sleep in the dust of the earth will awake: some to everlasting life, others to shame and everlasting contempt."
Rev 20:5 "(The rest of the dead did not come to life until the thousand years were ended.) This is the first resurrection.)"
1 Sam 2:6 "The Lord brings death and make alive; he brings down to the grave and raises up."
Psalm 49:14 "But God will redeem my soul from the grave; he will surely take me to himself."
Psalm 22:29, "...all who go down to the dust will kneel down to Him..."
Psalm 23:6 After telling about the shadow of death in Psalm 23:4, David says, "He will dwell in the house of the Lord forever."
Psalm 49:8-9 "The ransom for a life is costly, no payment is ever enough - that he should live on forever and not see decay."
Psalm 52:8-9 "I trust in God's unfailing love for ever and ever. I will praise you forever... I will praise you in the presence of your saints."
Isaiah 25:7-8 "On this mountain he [God] will destroy the shroud that enfolds all peoples, the sheet that covers all nations; he will swallow up death forever...."
Isaiah 53:8-10 After saying the one who suffers for us will be killed and put in the grave of a rich man in verses 8-9, yet he shall see his offspring in verse 10.
All these verses are quoted from the NIV.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 15:50, since flesh and blood cannot enter Heaven, how come Enoch entered Heaven without tasting death in Heb 11:5?
A: Obviously Almighty God has the ability to transform Enoch to have a glorified body without Him tasting death. Also, when living people are raptured into Heaven, they might not taste death for the same reason.
In summary, God could change the bodies of Enoch and raptured believers without them tasting death, in an equivalent way as believers who die, as Haley's Alleged Discrepancies of the Bible p.217 says. See also The Complete Book of Bible Answers p.266 for more info.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 15:52, what does the "last trump" say about the tribulation?
A: Pretribulationists say the last trump was a special trumpet for believers, and is not one of the seven trumpets in Revelation. Others point to this verse as one of the biggest shortcomings of the pretribulation view. They say this is the seventh trumpet in Revelation 11:15.
 

Q: In 1 Cor 16:15 (KJV), why have they "addicted themselves to the service of the saints?"
A: The King James Version expression is better translated "devoted themselves to the service of the saints."
 

Q: In 1 Cor 16:18, since we do not deserve any good things, how do these godly men deserve recognition?
A: In an absolute sense, we do not deserve anything from God except justice (and thank God He gives us mercy).
In a relative sense, however, God is commanding us to give recognition and encouragement to godly leaders who serve God and others well.
Tongue-in-cheek, it would be hard for a Christian to work for a Christian boss who did not make this distinction. The boss could say, "for all the good things you have been given in this life, which do you really deserve?" The worker could answer, "None. Everything is by the grace and mercy of God." The boss could answer, "Well, I am glad you understand that I was going to give you a raise, except that you just do not deserve it!"
 

Q: In 1 Cor 16:22, why is Paul cursing people who do not love (fileo) the Lord?
A: If some view this as Paul wanting them to go to Hell, this is not God's desired will, as Ezekiel 18:23,32 and 2 Peter 3:9 shows that God does not want anyone to perish. There are three points to consider in the answer.
1. Regardless of Paul telling us this, people who do not love Jesus are under a curse.
2. Paul, and us, should pray that those who are under the curse of not knowing Jesus, should see the emptiness and that God would send whatever experiences, even painful ones, to show their need for Christ.
3. Paul, and us, should pray that those who do the cursed work of leading others astray should be cursed with failure.
 

Q: In 1 Cor, how do we know this was really written by Paul?
A: We have no evidence suggesting Paul did not write it, and six pieces of evidence that indicates Paul wrote it.
The book of 1 Corinthians itself says so, and the early church never questioned this.
Clement of Rome (97/98 A.D.) in 1 Clement ch.47 says that the apostle Paul wrote to the Corinthians about having parties of Paul, Cephas, and Apollos.
The author of To Diognetus was a disciple of the apostles (ch.10) quotes 2 Corinthians 8:1, saying "The Apostle" declared this in his Letter to Diognetus (c.130 A.D.).
Polycarp (110-155 A.D.) in his Letter (ch.11) quotes 1 Corinthians 6:2 and says this was by Paul.
Irenaeus (182-188 A.D.) was a disciple of Polycarp who was a disciple of John the Apostle. He showed that both he and Gnostic heretics agreed Corinthians was written by Paul in Against Heresies 8.
Tertullian said Paul wrote to the Romans, Galatians, Philippians, Thessalonians, and Ephesians in Tertullian Against Marcion book 4 ch.5 p.350 (207 A.D.). He says the New Testament was a book "that comes down from the apostles, which has been kept as a sacred deposit in the churches of the apostles." Tertullian, writing 198-220 A.D. in de Corona ch.13 p.101 mentions that "you have the apostle [Paul] enjoining people to marry in the Lord."
Assuming Paul died under Nero, Paul's death would be about 67 A.D.
 

Q: In 1 Cor, how do we know that Scripture today is a reliable preservation of what was originally written?
A: There are at least three good reasons.
1. God promised to preserve His word in Isaiah 55:10-11; Isaiah 59:21; Isaiah 40:6-8; 1 Peter 1:24-25; and Matthew 24:35.
2. Evidence of the early church. Here are a few of the writers who referred to verses in 1 Corinthians.
1 Clement (97/98 A.D.) is basically a letter of Clement, bishop of Rome, telling the Corinthians they need to be doing the things Paul told them 50 years ago. In chapter 47, Clement mentions Apollos and Cephas
Clement of Rome quotes 1 Corinthians 2:9 1 Clement ch.34 vol.1 p.14, vol.9 p.239
Ignatius 1 Corinthians 1:20 Quote Ignatius' Letter to the Ephesians ch.18 p.56-57. After this is a paraphrase, but it is an unmistakable reference.
Ignatius 1 Corinthians 3:16; 6:19 Allusion Ignatius' Letter to the Philadelphians ch.7 p.84
1 Corinthians 6:19 Allusion "we are temples of God" in Ignatius' Letter to the Ephesians ch.15 p.56
Eusebius writes, "As the Presbyters say" and quotes 1 Corinthians 15:25,26 as said by the apostle. Then quotes 1 Corinthians 15:27,28 Fragment 5 vol.1 p.154.
1 Cor 6:9,10b 1 1/2 Quote Polycarp's Letter to the Philippians ch.5 p.34
Letter To Diognetus c.130 A.D.
The Didache 120-150 A.D.
The Muratorian Canon (170-210 A.D.) ANF vol.5 p.603 mentions Paul's two letters to the Corinthians, as well as Paul's other 11 letters.
2 Clement (c.150 A.D.) ch.11 p.254 quotes half of 1 Corinthians 2:9. "ear hath not heard, nor eye see, neither have entered into the heart of man."
Melito of Sardis (170-180 A.D.) mentions Luke and Mark as the "gospel". Mention of 1 Corinthians as by the apostle. Quote from Hebrews. Oration on the Lord's Passion ch.9 p.760-761
Athenagoras 177 A.D. says "in the language of the apostle" and then immediately quotes 1 Corinthians 15:54. The Resurrection of the Dead ch.18 p.159
Irenaeus (182-188 A.D.) quotes 1 Corinthians 6:12 as by Paul in Irenaeus Against Heresies book 4 ch.37.4 p.519
Clement of Alexandria asked what the wisdom of this world was that Paul warned us against in 1 Corinthians 3:19-21. Stromata (193-202 A.D.) book 1 ch.11
Tertullian (198-220 A.D.) quotes 1 Corinthians 8:2 and Galatians 1:7 and 5:7 as being by the apostle in On Prescription Against Heretics ch.27 p.256.
Tertullian (198-220 A.D.) quotes 1 Corinthians 15:29 in On the Resurrection of the Flesh ch.48 p.582
Theodotus the probable Montanist (ca.240 A.D.) alludes to 1 Corinthians 15:49 in ch.24 p.46
Hippolytus (225-235.6 A/D.) quotes part of 1 Corinthians 2:13 as Scripture in The Refutation of All Heresies book 7 ch.14 p.107.
Julius Africanus (232-245 A.D.) quotes 1 Corinthians 15:12 and said it was by the apostle in The Epistle to Aristides ch.1 p.125)
Origen (225-253/254 A.D.) quotes 1 Corinthians 1:24 as by Paul. de Principiis book 1 ch.2.1 p.246 He also quotes 1 Corinthians 14:15 as by Paul in de Principiis book 2 ch.2 p.287
Cyprian was a bishop of Carthage from c.246 to his martyrdom in 258 A.D.. He mentions the First Epistle of Paul to the Corinthians and then quotes 1 Corinthians 7:10,11 in Treatises of Cyprian - Testimonies ch.90 p.553. He also refers to Paul and his first Epistle to the Corinthians in Treatise 12 second book ch.1 p.516
Gregory Thaumaturgus (240-265 A.D.) quotes 1 Corinthians 6:13 as by the apostle in Canonical Epistle ch.1 p.18.
Pierius of Alexandria (275 A.D.) quotes half of 1 Corinthians 7:7 as by Paul in Fragment 1 p.157
Archelaus (262-278 A.D.) quotes 1 Corinthians 13:8-10 as "For in that first Epistle to the Corinthians, Paul speaks..." (Archelaus is speaking) Disputation with Manes ch.37 p.211
Adamantius (c.300 A.D.) quotes 1 Corinthians 15:29 in Dialogue on the True Faith fifth part ch.23 p.181
Arnobius Against the Heathen (297-303 A.D.) book 2 ch.7 p.435 "Have the well-known words never rung in your ears, that the wisdom of man is foolishness with God?" (1 Corinthians 3:19)
Victorinus bishop of Petau in Austria (martyred 304 A.D.) Mentions the Old and New Testaments in his Commentary on the Apocalypse of the Blessed John p.345 He listed the letters of Paul as Romans, Corinthians, Galatians, Ephesians, Thessalonians, Philippians, Colossians, Timothy and quotes 1 Timothy 3:15 in ch.16 p.345 He goes on to quote 1 Corinthians 15:53 on p.346
Methodius (270-311/312 A.D.) quotes 1 Corinthians 7:34 as by Paul. Banquet of the Ten Virgins discourse 1 ch.1 p.311.
Alexander of Alexandria (313-326 A.D.) quotes 1 Corinthians 2:9 as by the apostle Paul and Colossians 1:16,17 as by Paul in Epistles on the Arian Heresy Epistle 1 ch.5 p.293
After Nicea
Eusebius of Caesarea (
318-339/340 A.D.) wrote whole commentaries on Luke and 1 Corinthians. Nicene and Post-Nicene Fathers Second Series vol.1 p.41
Hegemonius (4th century) refers to Romans 6:11
Zeno (4th century) refers to Romans 13:3
Victorinus of Rome (after 363 A.D.)
Athanasius (367 A.D.) lists the books of the New Testament in Festal Letter 39 p.552
Hilary of Poitiers (355-367/368 A.D.) quotes 1 Corinthians 3:8 as "those words to the Corinthians" On the Trinity book 8 ch.5 p.139
Synopsis Scripturae Sacrae (350-370 A.D. or 5th century) mentions Paul's two letters to the Corinthians as part of the New Testament. It quotes 1 Corinthians 1:1-2a.
The schismatic Lucifer of Cagliari (370/371 A.D.)
Marcellus of Ancrya (about 374 A.D.)
Basil of Cappadocia (357-378/379 A.D.) quotes 1 Corinthians 3:13 as by the Apostle. On the Spirit ch.15.36 p.22. He also says that 1 Corinthians 7:6 is by Paul. Letter 8 ch.3 p.117
Ambrosiaster (after 384 A.D.)
Cyril of Jerusalem (c.349-386 A.D.)
Ambrose of Milan (370-390 A.D.)
Apollinaris of Laodicea (c.390 A.D.)
Pacian of Barcelona (342-379/392 A.D.)
Gregory of Elvira (after 392 A.D.)
Amphilochius (-397 A.D.) in Iambi ad Seleucum
Gregory of Nyssa (c.356-397 A.D.) 1 Corinthians 15:51,52 "the divine Apostle .. to the Corinthians" On the Making of Man ch32.6 p.412
Didymus the Blind (398 A.D.)
Macarius/Symeon (4th or 5th century)
Maximinus (4th/5th century)
Petilianus (4th/5th century) refers to Romans 7:5
Timothy of Alexandria (4th/5th century)
Epiphanius of Salamis (360-403 A.D.)
Flavian of Antioch (404 A.D.)
Gaudentius (after 406 A.D.)
John Chrysostom (392-407 A.D.) must have really appreciated 1 Corinthians, because he wrote down 44 sermons on 1 Corinthians, which we still have today. He says 1 Corinthians was by Paul and Sosthenes.
Chromatius (died 407 A.D.)
Severian (after 408 A.D.)
Niceta of Remesianus (366-c.415 A.D.)
Orosius/Hosius of Braga (414-418 A.D.) quotes part of 1 Corinthians 15:10 as by Paul. Defense Against the Pelagians ch.10 p.127
Jerome (373-420 A.D.)
Sozomon (370/380-425 A.D.) says that 1 Corinthians 11:12 as by the Apostle Paul. Sozomen's Ecclesiastical History book 4 ch.29 p.324
Augustine of Hippo (388-430 A.D.) quotes 1 Corinthians 10:17 as being by the Apostle Paul in The City of God book 17 ch.5 p.345
The semi-Pelagian John Cassian (419-430 A.D.) quotes one-fourth of a verse of 1 Corinthians 3:16; 4:16 as by Paul in the Institutes of John Cassian book 9.3 p.264
Marcus of Eremita (after 430 A.D.)
Cyril of Alexandria (444 A.D.)
Hesychius of Jerusalem (-450 A.D.) (pronounced HESS-us)
Speculum (fifth century)
Theodoret of Cyrus (bishop and historian) (423-458 A.D.)
Varimadum (445/480 A.D.)
Evidence of heretics and spurious books
Marcion
refers to 1 Corinthians according to Tertullian.
The Gnostic Ptolemy referred to 1 Corinthians 2:15 according to Irenaeus.
The heretic Priscillian (c.385 A.D.)
The Donatist heretic Tyconius (after 390 A.D.)
The heretic Pelagius (416-418 A.D.)
The Pelagian heretic Theodore of Mopsuestia (392-423/429 A.D.) Alludes to Stephen in Acts 7:42-43 as "in the Acts of the Holy Apostles". Commentary on Amos ch.5 p.154
We still have all of these today.
3. Earliest manuscripts we have of 1 Corinthians show there are small manuscript variations, but zero theologically significant errors.
p11 1 Cor 1:17-23; 2:9-12, 14; 3:1-3, 5-6; 4:3-5:5, 7-8; 6:5-7, 11-18; 7:3-6, 10-14. 7th century. Agrees with Sinaiticus
7th century - 1968 - The Text of the New Testament.
p14 - 1 Cor 1:25-27; 2:6-8; 3:8-10 fifth century. Alexandrian text.
5th century? - 1968 - The Text of the New Testament.
p15 (=Papyrus Oxyrhynchus 1009) 1 Cor 7:18-8:4 (late 3rd century). The Complete Text of the Earliest New Testament Manuscripts has a picture of p15 on p.84. Here is the dating:
3rd century - 1968 - The Text of the New Testament.
3rd century - 1975 - Aland Third Edition
3rd century - 1998 - Aland Fourth Revised Edition
Late 3rd century (Philip Comfort and David P. Barrett in The Complete Text of the Earliest New Testament Manuscripts, 1999.)
p34 - 1 Cor 16:4-7; 10; 2 Cor 5:18-21; 10:13-14; 11:2,4,6-7 (7th century) Alexandrian text.
7th century - 1968 - The Text of the New Testament.
p46 Chester Beatty II 100-150 A.D. 1 Cor 1:1-9:2; 9:4-14:14; 14:16-15:15; 15:17-16:22 (99% or 431/436 verses) and other parts of Paul's letters and Hebrews. The Complete Text of the Earliest New Testament Manuscripts has a photograph of part of p46 on p.192. It also says on p.197-198 that the quality and the stichiometric marks show a professional scribe wrote this.
First half of 3rd century - 1936 - Frederic G. Kenyon according to The Complete Text of the Earliest New Testament Manuscripts.
2nd century, 200 A.D. - 1935 - Ulrich Wilken according to The Complete Text of the Earliest New Testament Manuscripts.
200 A.D. - 1968 - The Text of the New Testament.
81-96 A.D. - 1988 - Young Kyu Kim according to The Complete Text of the Earliest New Testament Manuscripts.
About 200 A.D. - 1975 - Aland et al. third edition.
About 200 A.D. - 1998 - Aland et al. fourth revised edition.
Early to middle 2nd century - 1999 - The Complete Text of the Earliest New Testament Manuscripts. This is based in part on the handwriting being very similar to Papyrus Oxyrhynchus 8 (late first or early second century) and Papyrus Oxyrhynchus 2337 (late first century).
p61 Romans 16:23,25-27; 1 Corinthians 1:1-2, 2-6; 5:1-3, 5-6, 9-13; Philippians 3:5-9, 12-16, Colossians 1:3-7, 9-13, 1 Thessalonians 1:2-3; Titus 3:1-5, 8-11, 14-15 Philemon 4-7. c.700 A.D.
c.700 A.D. - 1968 - The Text of the New Testament.
About 700 A.D. - 1975 - Aland et al. third edition.
About 700 A.D. - 1998 - Aland et al. fourth revised edition.
Vaticanus [B] 325-350 A.D.
Sinaiticus [Si] 340-350 A.D.
Bohairic Coptic [Boh] 3rd/4th century
Sahidic Coptic [Sah] 3rd/4rth century
Gothic [Goth] 493-555 A.D.
Alexandrinus [A] c.450 A.D.
Ephraemi Rescriptus [C] 5th century
 
See www.BibleQuery.org/1corMss.html for more on early manuscripts of 1 Corinthians.
 

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